Nursing Elites

1. You’re preparing a patient with a malignant tumor for colorectal surgery and subsequent colostomy. The patient tells you he’s anxious. What should your initial step be in working with this patient?

• A. Determine what the patient already knows about colostomies.
• B. Show the patient some pictures of colostomies.
• C. Arrange for someone who has a colostomy to visit the patient.
• D. Provide the patient with written material about colostomy care.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a patient with a malignant tumor is anxious about colorectal surgery and a colostomy, the initial step is to determine what the patient already knows about colostomies.

2. The nurse is caring for a client on the first postoperative day following a surgical repair of an abdominal aortic aneurysm. Which nursing diagnosis is the most important for this client?

• A. Risk for infection
• B. Deficient knowledge
• C. Ineffective peripheral tissue perfusion
• D. Activity intolerance

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Peripheral tissue perfusion is a major concern in the postoperative period following an abdominal aneurysm repair. Peripheral pulses should be checked frequently during the first 24 hours. A weak or absent pulse may be a sign of embolization or graft closure, especially if accompanied by a pale, cold, mottled extremity; the nurse should immediately report this to the surgeon. Risk for infection, deficient knowledge, and activity intolerance are all important nursing diagnoses in the postoperative period, but peripheral tissue perfusion is the most immediate concern.

3. An intubated patient is receiving continuous enteral feedings through a Salem sump tube at a rate of 60ml/hr. Gastric residuals have been 30-40ml when monitored Q4H. You check the gastric residual and aspirate 220ml. What is your first response to this finding?

• A. Notify the doctor immediately.
• B. Stop the feeding, and clamp the NG tube.
• C. Discard the 220ml, and clamp the NG tube.
• D. Give a prescribed GI stimulant such as metoclopramide (Reglan).

Correct answer: B

Rationale: If gastric residuals are high during continuous enteral feedings, the first response is to stop the feeding and clamp the NG tube.

4. The nurse is caring for a client who underwent a subtotal gastrectomy. To manage dumping syndrome, the nurse should advise the client to:

• A. restrict fluid intake to 1 qt (1,000 ml)/day.
• B. drink liquids only with meals.
• C. don't drink liquids 2 hours before meals.
• D. drink liquids only between meals.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A client who experiences dumping syndrome after a subtotal gastrectomy should be advised to ingest liquids between meals rather than with meals. Taking fluids between meals allows for adequate hydration, reduces the amount of bulk ingested with meals, and aids in preventing rapid gastric emptying. There is no need to restrict the amount of fluids, just the time when the client drinks fluids. Drinking liquids with meals increases the risk of dumping syndrome by increasing the amount of bulk and stimulating rapid gastric emptying. Small amounts of water are allowable before meals.

5. Findings during an endoscopic exam include a cobblestone appearance of the colon in your patient. The findings are characteristic of which disorder?

• A. Ulcer
• B. Crohn’s disease
• C. Chronic gastritis
• D. Ulcerative colitis

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The cobblestone appearance of the colon is characteristic of Crohn’s disease.

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