Nursing Elites

1. Your patient Maria takes NSAIDS for her degenerative joint disease, has developed peptic ulcer disease. Which drug is useful in preventing NSAID-induced peptic ulcer disease?

• A. Calcium carbonate (Tums)
• B. Famotidine (Pepcid)
• C. Misoprostol (Cytotec)
• D. Sucralfate (Carafate)

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Misoprostol (Cytotec) is useful in preventing NSAID-induced peptic ulcer disease.

2. A 53 y.o. patient has undergone a partial gastrectomy for adenocarcinoma of the stomach. An NG tube is in place and is connected to low continuous suction. During the immediate postoperative period, you expect the gastric secretions to be which color?

• A. Brown.
• B. Clear.
• C. Red.
• D. Yellow.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: During the immediate postoperative period after a partial gastrectomy, gastric secretions are expected to be red.

3. Claire, a 33 y.o. is on your floor with a possible bowel obstruction. Which intervention is priority for her?

• A. Obtain daily weights.
• B. Measure abdominal girth.
• C. Keep strict intake and output.
• D. Encourage her to increase fluids.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: For a patient with a possible bowel obstruction, measuring abdominal girth is a priority to monitor for signs of worsening obstruction or distention.

4. A client with peptic ulcer disease tells the nurse that he has black stools, which he has not reported to his physician. Based on this information, which nursing diagnosis would be appropriate for this client?

• A. Ineffective coping related to fear of diagnosis of chronic illness
• B. Deficient knowledge related to unfamiliarity with significant signs and symptoms
• C. Constipation related to decreased gastric motility
• D. Imbalanced nutrition: Less than body requirements due to gastric bleeding

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Deficient knowledge related to unfamiliarity with significant signs and symptoms is appropriate because the client did not report the black stools, which can be a sign of bleeding.

5. A client has been diagnosed with adenocarcinoma of the stomach and is scheduled to undergo a subtotal gastrectomy (Billroth II procedure). During pre-operative teaching, the nurse is reinforcing information about the procedure. Which of the following explanations is most accurate?

• A. The procedure will result in enlargement of the pyloric sphincter
• B. The procedure will result in anastomosis of the gastric stump to the jejunum
• C. The procedure will result in removal of the duodenum
• D. The procedure will result in repositioning of the vagus nerve

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The Billroth II procedure involves anastomosis of the gastric stump to the jejunum.

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