Nursing Elites

1. You are teaching your clients the difference between Type I (IDDM) and Type II (NDDM) diabetes. Which of the following statements is true?

• A. Both types of diabetes mellitus clients are prone to developing ketosis.
• B. Type II (NIDDM) is more common and preventable compared to Type I (IDDM) diabetes, which is genetic.
• C. Type I (IIDM) is characterized by fasting hyperglycemia.
• D. Type II (NIDDM) is characterized by abnormal immune response.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Type II diabetes (NIDDM) is characterized by insulin resistance and a relative lack of insulin. It is not primarily characterized by an abnormal immune response. Option A is incorrect because only Type I diabetes clients are prone to developing ketosis due to a lack of insulin. Option B is incorrect because while Type II diabetes is more common and often preventable through lifestyle changes, it is not solely genetic. Option C is incorrect because Type I diabetes, not Type II, is characterized by fasting hyperglycemia due to an absolute lack of insulin production.

2. What side effect is commonly associated with ECT?

• A. Transient loss of memory, confusion, and disorientation
• B. Nausea and vomiting
• C. Fractures
• D. Hypertension and increased heart rate

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A, as Electroconvulsive Therapy (ECT) is commonly associated with side effects such as transient loss of memory, confusion, and disorientation. While nausea and vomiting (Choice B) can occur, they are not as common as the memory-related side effects. Fractures (Choice C) are unlikely unless a mishap occurs during the procedure. Hypertension and increased heart rate (Choice D) might occur during the procedure due to the physiological stress of the treatment, but these are not the most commonly associated side effects. The rationale provided did not effectively explain this, so it's important to note that ECT is a procedure often used for severe depression and other mental illnesses, and understanding its side effects is crucial for patient safety and effective care.

3. When a nurse signs a consent form, which ethical principle is being observed regarding the patient?

• A. Autonomy
• B. Justice
• C. Accountability
• D. Beneficence

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Autonomy'. Autonomy refers to the patient's right to make their own decisions, which is being honored when a nurse signs a consent form. While beneficence (Choice D) is an important ethical principle that involves acting in the patient's best interest, it is not what is being primarily observed in this instance. Justice (Choice B) refers to fairness and equal treatment and is not specifically relevant to this scenario. Accountability (Choice C) pertains to being answerable for one's actions and decisions, but again, it is not the principle directly observed in this situation. Therefore, when a nurse signs a consent form, it is the principle of autonomy that is being observed.

4. A healthcare provider is assessing a client who has a stage III pressure ulcer that is healing poorly. The provider should identify that which of the following vitamin deficiencies increases the client’s risk for delayed wound healing?

• A. Vitamin C
• B. Vitamin D
• C. Vitamin E
• D. Vitamin B6

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Vitamin C deficiency can impair collagen synthesis and delay wound healing, making it crucial for recovery from pressure ulcers. Incorrect Rationales: - Vitamin D deficiency is associated with bone health, not specifically wound healing. - Vitamin E deficiency can lead to neurological and immune system issues but is not directly linked to delayed wound healing. - Vitamin B6 deficiency can cause skin rashes and neurological symptoms but is not a primary factor in delayed wound healing.

5. Dina, 17 years old, asks you how a tubal ligation prevents pregnancy. Which would be the best answer?

• A. Prostaglandins released from the cut fallopian tubes can kill sperm
• B. Sperm cannot enter the uterus because the cervical entrance is blocked
• C. Sperm can no longer reach the ova, because the fallopian tubes are blocked
• D. The ovary no longer releases ova as there is nowhere for them to go

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Sperm can no longer reach the ova because the fallopian tubes are blocked.' Tubal ligation works by blocking the fallopian tubes, preventing sperm from reaching the egg for fertilization. Choice A is incorrect because prostaglandins are not released from the cut fallopian tubes to kill sperm. Choice B is incorrect as the cervical entrance being blocked does not relate to tubal ligation. Choice D is incorrect because tubal ligation does not affect the release of ova from the ovary.

Similar Questions