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ATI Pediatrics Proctored Exam 2023 Quizlet
1. Which statement best describes the use of activity or task analysis?
- A. A foundational tool in occupational therapy for over a century
- B. A technique used to evaluate motor deficits in pediatrics
- C. Recently applied in some areas of pediatric occupational therapy
- D. A tool used exclusively by occupational therapy practitioners
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'A foundational tool in occupational therapy for over a century.' Activity or task analysis has been a fundamental method in occupational therapy for a long time. It involves breaking down activities or tasks into smaller components to understand the skills required and identify areas of difficulty. This process helps occupational therapists develop effective intervention strategies to improve a client's ability to perform daily activities independently. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because activity or task analysis is not limited to evaluating motor deficits in pediatrics, recently applied only in some areas of pediatric occupational therapy, or exclusively used by occupational therapy practitioners. It is a widely used and established method in the field of occupational therapy.
2. The renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system plays an important role in maintaining blood pressure. Which compound in this system is most powerful at raising blood pressure?
- A. Angiotensin I
- B. Angiotensin II
- C. Angiotensin III
- D. Renin
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Angiotensin II is the most potent compound in the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system for raising blood pressure. It acts as a powerful vasoconstrictor, leading to increased systemic vascular resistance. Angiotensin II is formed from angiotensin I through the action of the angiotensin-converting enzyme. While renin initiates the cascade by converting angiotensinogen to angiotensin I, it is angiotensin II that exerts the strongest pressor effect.
3. A child with a history of seizures arrives in the emergency department (ED) in status epilepticus. Which is the priority nursing action?
- A. Take vital signs.
- B. Establish an intravenous line.
- C. Perform rapid neurologic assessment.
- D. Maintain a patent airway.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: When a child with a history of seizures presents in status epilepticus, the priority nursing action is to maintain a patent airway. This is crucial to ensure proper oxygenation and ventilation. While taking vital signs, establishing an intravenous line, and performing rapid neurologic assessment are important, maintaining a patent airway takes precedence. Hypoxia can lead to serious complications, making airway management the top priority to ensure the child's safety and prevent further deterioration.
4. A nurse assesses a male patient who has developed gynecomastia while receiving treatment for peptic ulcers. Which medication from the patient�s history should the nurse recognize as a contributing factor?
- A. Amoxicillin (Amoxil)
- B. Cimetidine (Tagamet)
- C. Metronidazole (Flagyl)
- D. Omeprazole (Prilosec)
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Cimetidine binds to androgen receptors, producing receptor blockade, which can cause enlarged breast tissue, reduced libido, and impotence. All these effects reverse when dosing stops. Amoxicillin, metronidazole, and omeprazole are not associated with gynecomastia.
5. Which question provides information regarding a child's community mobility?
- A. What is the level of supervision provided?
- B. Can the child leave the house and play with friends?
- C. Is the child being bullied?
- D. Is there equipment available so the child can play with peers?
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Choice B directly assesses the child's community mobility by inquiring about their ability to leave the house and engage in play activities with friends. Community mobility involves the child's independence in social and recreational activities outside the home, making this question crucial for understanding their daily functioning and autonomy.
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