Nursing Elites

1. Which standardized test would be most appropriate for assessing the motor development of a 2-month-old infant in a high-risk clinic?

• A. Peabody Developmental Motor Scale (PDMS-2)
• B. Bruininks-Oseretsky Test of Motor Proficiency (BOT-2)
• C. Pediatric Evaluation of Disability Index (PEDI)
• D. School Assessment of Motor and Process Skills (School-AMPS)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The Peabody Developmental Motor Scale (PDMS-2) is specifically designed to assess the motor development of infants and young children, making it the most appropriate choice for evaluating a 2-month-old infant in a high-risk clinic setting.

2. A healthcare provider is assessing an infant who has hydrocephalus and is 6 hours postoperative following placement of a ventriculoperitoneal shunt. Which of the following findings should the provider report to the healthcare provider?

• A. Decreased urine output
• B. Temperature of 37.5 degrees C (99.5 degrees F)
• C. Heart rate 130/min
• D. Leakage of cerebrospinal fluid

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The provider should report the leakage of cerebrospinal fluid to the healthcare provider as it may indicate shunt malfunction or infection, requiring immediate attention to prevent complications. Decreased urine output, a temperature of 37.5 degrees C, and a heart rate of 130/min are common postoperative findings and may not be directly related to shunt function. While these findings should still be monitored, they do not require immediate reporting like cerebrospinal fluid leakage.

3. A patient with Parkinson�s disease who takes levodopa/carbidopa (Sinemet) comes to the clinic for a semi-annual physical examination. Which question is the most important for that nurse to ask?

• A. Have you noticed any swelling in your feet?
• B. Are you having vivid dreams or hallucination?
• C. Have you noticed any changes in your stool?
• D. Have you had your flu vaccine?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Patients taking levodopa/carbidopa (Sinemet) are at increased risk for the psychiatric side effects of levodopa, including visual hallucinations, vivid dreams, nightmares, and paranoid ideation. The other questions are not directly related to problems that are likely to occur with this drug.

4. When educating a patient about sildenafil (Viagra), which adverse effect should be a priority for the patient to report to his prescriber?

• A. Flushing
• B. Diarrhea
• C. Hearing loss
• D. Dyspepsia

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is 'C: Hearing loss.' In rare cases, Viagra has been associated with sudden hearing loss, typically in one ear, which can be partial or complete. Any onset of hearing problems while using Viagra should be reported promptly to the prescriber. It is recommended to discontinue the medication if it is used for erectile dysfunction. 'Flushing,' 'Diarrhea,' and 'Dyspepsia' are known adverse effects of Viagra but are generally less serious compared to hearing loss.

5. A child with croup has an increased PCO2, a decreased pH, and a normal HCO3 blood gas value. Which finding does the nurse report to the healthcare provider based on these data?

• A. Uncompensated metabolic alkalosis
• B. Uncompensated metabolic acidosis
• C. Uncompensated respiratory acidosis
• D. Uncompensated respiratory alkalosis

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The blood gas values indicate uncompensated respiratory acidosis. In respiratory acidosis, there is an increased PCO2, decreased pH, and a normal HCO3 level. This condition requires immediate attention to address the underlying respiratory problem causing the acidosis.

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