Nursing Elites

1. Which standardized test would be most appropriate for assessing the motor development of a 2-month-old infant in a high-risk clinic?

• A. Peabody Developmental Motor Scale (PDMS-2)
• B. Bruininks-Oseretsky Test of Motor Proficiency (BOT-2)
• C. Pediatric Evaluation of Disability Index (PEDI)
• D. School Assessment of Motor and Process Skills (School-AMPS)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The Peabody Developmental Motor Scale (PDMS-2) is specifically designed to assess the motor development of infants and young children, making it the most appropriate choice for evaluating a 2-month-old infant in a high-risk clinic setting.

2. A newborn's parents are being taught about ways to prevent sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS). Which of the following instructions should be included?

• A. Place the infant in a prone position to sleep.
• B. Allow the infant to sleep on a large pillow.
• C. Use a soft mattress in the infant's crib.
• D. Give the infant a pacifier at bedtime.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct instruction to prevent SIDS is to give the infant a pacifier at bedtime. The use of a pacifier while the infant is sleeping is associated with a decreased risk of SIDS. Placing the infant on their back to sleep is recommended to prevent SIDS, not in a prone position (Choice A). Allowing the infant to sleep on a large pillow (Choice B) is dangerous and increases the risk of SIDS. Using a soft mattress in the infant's crib (Choice C) is also a risk factor for SIDS, so it should be avoided. Additionally, soft bedding or pillows should be avoided to reduce the risk of SIDS.

3. For a 6-year-old child with hypokalemia, which menu choice should the nurse encourage?

• A. Pizza with a fruit plate
• B. Chicken strips with chips
• C. Fajita with rice
• D. Hamburger with French fries

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Pizza with a fruit plate is the most suitable choice for a 6-year-old child with hypokalemia due to its potassium content. Potassium-rich foods like fruits can help replenish potassium levels in the body, aiding in the treatment of hypokalemia.

4. A patient taking sildenafil (Viagra) asks a nurse what action to take if priapism occurs. Which response should the nurse provide?

• A. Take an additional half-strength dose of sildenafil
• B. The condition usually resolves in 12 hours or less
• C. Wait until the following day and notify the doctor
• D. Seek emergency help, because permanent damage can occur

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Patients experiencing priapism from sildenafil should seek immediate medical attention. Priapism is a serious condition where an erection lasts longer than 4 hours, and if left untreated, it can lead to irreversible damage to the penile tissue, potentially causing permanent erectile dysfunction. Therefore, prompt intervention is crucial to prevent long-term complications.

5. A child with nephrotic syndrome has not experienced diuresis after a month on corticosteroids. What protocol can the nurse encourage to induce diuresis?

• A. Ibuprofen, an anti-inflammatory agent
• B. Furosemide (Lasix), a diuretic
• C. Ciprofloxacin (Cipro), an antibiotic
• D. Cyclophosphamide (Cytoxan), an immunosuppressant

Correct answer: B

Rationale: To induce diuresis in a child with nephrotic syndrome who has not responded to corticosteroids, a diuretic like Furosemide (Lasix) is appropriate. Furosemide helps increase urine production and reduce fluid retention. Ibuprofen is an anti-inflammatory agent and does not directly induce diuresis. Ciprofloxacin is an antibiotic and is not used to promote diuresis. Cyclophosphamide is an immunosuppressant, not an antisuppressant, and is not typically used to induce diuresis in nephrotic syndrome.

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