Nursing Elites

1. Which part of the body requires a continuous supply of oxygen and vital nutrients to support life and death?

• A. Liver
• B. Kidneys
• C. Brain
• D. Muscles

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The brain requires a continuous supply of oxygen and vital nutrients to support life and prevent death. Oxygen and nutrients are essential for brain function, and any interruption in the supply can lead to serious consequences, including brain damage or death. Therefore, ensuring a constant flow of oxygen and nutrients to the brain is vital for survival and overall health.

2. A client with Preeclampsia is receiving Magnesium Sulfate IV continuous infusion. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. 2+ deep tendon reflexes
• B. 2+ pedal edema
• C. 24 mL/hr urinary output
• D. Respirations 12/min

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In a client receiving Magnesium Sulfate IV continuous infusion for Preeclampsia, a urinary output less than 25 to 30 mL/hr is indicative of magnesium sulfate toxicity and should be promptly reported to the provider for further evaluation and management. Therefore, the correct answer is C. Option A, 2+ deep tendon reflexes, are expected findings in a client receiving magnesium sulfate and do not require immediate reporting. Option B, 2+ pedal edema, is a common symptom of preeclampsia and typically does not require immediate intervention. Option D, respirations 12/min, are within the normal range and do not indicate an immediate need for reporting to the provider.

3. A client has a new prescription for Simvastatin. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?

• A. I will take this medication at bedtime.
• B. I should avoid eating grapefruit while taking this medication.
• C. I will need to monitor my blood sugar closely while taking this medication.
• D. I will stop taking the medication if I develop muscle pain.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Grapefruit can increase the levels of simvastatin in the blood, leading to an increased risk of serious side effects, including muscle pain or damage. Therefore, it is crucial for the client to avoid consuming grapefruit while taking this medication to prevent potential complications.

4. Which of the following is classified as a class IA Sodium Channel blocker?

• A. Quinidine
• B. Disopyramide
• C. Aminodarone
• D. Propafenone

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Quinidine is classified as a class IA sodium channel blocker. Class IA antiarrhythmics, like quinidine, work by blocking sodium channels and delaying repolarization. Propafenone, mentioned in the original rationale, is actually a class IC antiarrhythmic agent, not a class IA sodium channel blocker.

5. A client has a new prescription for nitroglycerin transdermal patches. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Apply the patch to a different location each day.
• B. Remove the patch every night before bedtime.
• C. Massage the patch area gently after application.
• D. Shave the area before applying the patch.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client using nitroglycerin transdermal patches is to remove the patch every night before bedtime. This practice helps prevent tolerance to the medication's effects. Continuous exposure to nitroglycerin can result in the body becoming less responsive to its therapeutic effects over time, reducing its efficacy in managing the prescribed condition. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Applying the patch to a different location each day does not address the issue of tolerance. Massaging the patch area gently after application is not recommended as it may alter drug absorption. Shaving the area before applying the patch is unnecessary and may increase the risk of skin irritation.

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