ATI RN
Pathophysiology Final Exam
1. Which of the following statements indicates more teaching is needed regarding secondary lymph organs? ________is/are a secondary lymph organ.
- A. The spleen
- B. Peyer's patches
- C. Adenoids
- D. The liver
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, 'The liver.' The liver is not a secondary lymph organ. Secondary lymph organs are primarily involved in the immune response, such as the spleen, Peyer's patches, and adenoids. The spleen filters blood and is essential for immune function. Peyer's patches are located in the small intestine and help protect against pathogens. Adenoids are located in the throat and play a role in immune defense. Therefore, the liver is the incorrect choice as it is not part of the secondary lymph organ system.
2. What causes hepatic encephalopathy?
- A. A brain infection
- B. Increased ammonia levels in the bloodstream
- C. Decreased albumin blood levels
- D. Untreated chronic bronchitis
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Hepatic encephalopathy is caused by increased ammonia levels in the bloodstream. Ammonia, a byproduct of protein metabolism normally processed by the liver, accumulates in the bloodstream when the liver is unable to function properly. This excess ammonia affects brain function, leading to symptoms of hepatic encephalopathy. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because they do not directly relate to the pathophysiology of hepatic encephalopathy.
3. In which patient would the manifestation of a headache be a sign of a serious underlying disorder?
- A. A 55-year-old man with new onset of headaches that are worse at night and reported mood swings according to his family
- B. A 30-year-old woman with a unilateral throbbing headache with photophobia and nausea
- C. A 60-year-old man with his head feeling full and throbbing and muscle aching around his neck and shoulders
- D. A 40-year-old woman who experiences food cravings, gets irritable, and then develops a pulsatile-like headache on the right side of her head
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. New onset headaches in older adults, especially if worse at night, may indicate a serious condition like a brain tumor. Choice B describes symptoms commonly seen in migraines. Choice C describes tension-type headaches. Choice D describes symptoms of a menstrual migraine which is not typically associated with a serious underlying disorder.
4. Which of the following is not an autoimmune disease?
- A. Multiple sclerosis
- B. Pernicious anemia
- C. Goodpasture syndrome
- D. Transfusion reaction
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, Transfusion reaction. Transfusion reaction is not an autoimmune disease because it occurs when the immune system responds to foreign blood cells, not to the body's own cells. Choices A, B, and C (Multiple sclerosis, Pernicious anemia, Goodpasture syndrome) are autoimmune diseases where the immune system mistakenly attacks the body's own tissues or organs.
5. Medroxyprogesterone acetate (Provera) is indicated for the treatment of women with
- A. uterine bleeding.
- B. cervical cancer.
- C. ovarian cancer.
- D. fibromyalgia.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Medroxyprogesterone acetate (Provera) is commonly used to treat conditions like abnormal uterine bleeding, amenorrhea, and endometriosis. It helps regulate the menstrual cycle and reduce excessive bleeding. Therefore, the correct answer is A. Choice B, cervical cancer, is incorrect because Provera is not indicated for the treatment of cancer. Choice C, ovarian cancer, is also incorrect as Provera is not a primary treatment for ovarian cancer. Choice D, fibromyalgia, is unrelated to the use of medroxyprogesterone acetate.
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