ATI RN
Pathophysiology Final Exam
1. Which of the following statements indicates more teaching is needed regarding secondary lymph organs? ________is/are a secondary lymph organ.
- A. The spleen
- B. Peyer's patches
- C. Adenoids
- D. The liver
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, 'The liver.' The liver is not a secondary lymph organ. Secondary lymph organs are primarily involved in the immune response, such as the spleen, Peyer's patches, and adenoids. The spleen filters blood and is essential for immune function. Peyer's patches are located in the small intestine and help protect against pathogens. Adenoids are located in the throat and play a role in immune defense. Therefore, the liver is the incorrect choice as it is not part of the secondary lymph organ system.
2. A patient presents with a rash from poison ivy. The nurse knows that this is which type of hypersensitivity?
- A. Type I
- B. Type II
- C. Type III
- D. Type IV
Correct answer: D
Rationale: A rash from poison ivy is an example of a type IV hypersensitivity reaction. Type IV hypersensitivity reactions are delayed cell-mediated immune responses involving T cells. This type of reaction is characterized by a delayed onset, typically occurring 48-72 hours after exposure to the antigen. Choice A, Type I hypersensitivity reactions, are immediate hypersensitivity reactions mediated by IgE antibodies. Choices B and C, Type II and Type III hypersensitivity reactions, involve antibody-mediated cytotoxicity and immune complex deposition, respectively, which are not characteristic of poison ivy-induced rashes.
3. Which of the following is an example of a Type 1 hypersensitivity reaction?
- A. Anaphylaxis
- B. Indigestion
- C. Beta cell destruction
- D. ABO transfusion reaction
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Anaphylaxis is a classic example of a Type 1 hypersensitivity reaction. In Type 1 hypersensitivity, allergens trigger an immediate immune response mediated by IgE antibodies, leading to the release of histamine and other mediators. This reaction can result in symptoms ranging from mild itching and hives to severe conditions like anaphylaxis, which is a life-threatening emergency. The other options, such as indigestion (choice B), beta cell destruction (choice C), and ABO transfusion reaction (choice D), are not classified as Type 1 hypersensitivity reactions. Indigestion is typically related to gastrointestinal disturbances, beta cell destruction is associated with autoimmune conditions like type 1 diabetes, and ABO transfusion reaction involves antibodies targeting incompatible blood groups, which is a different immune mechanism compared to Type 1 hypersensitivity.
4. The unique clinical presentation of a 3-month-old infant in the emergency department leads the care team to suspect botulism. Which assessment question posed to the parents is likely to be most useful in the differential diagnosis?
- A. Have you ever given your child any honey or honey-containing products?
- B. Is there any family history of neuromuscular diseases?
- C. Has your baby ever been directly exposed to any chemical cleaning products?
- D. Is there any mold in your home that you know of?
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Botulism in infants is often linked to honey consumption. Asking the parents if they have ever given their child any honey or honey-containing products can provide crucial information for the differential diagnosis. This is important because infant botulism is commonly associated with the ingestion of honey contaminated with Clostridium botulinum spores. Choices B, C, and D are less relevant to botulism in infants as they do not directly relate to the typical causes of the condition. Family history of neuromuscular diseases (choice B) may be important for other conditions but not specifically for infant botulism. Direct exposure to chemical cleaning products (choice C) and the presence of mold in the home (choice D) are not typical risk factors for infant botulism.
5. A nurse is caring for a patient who is being treated with clomiphene citrate (Clomid) for infertility. What side effect should the nurse warn the patient about?
- A. Headaches and visual disturbances
- B. Nausea and vomiting
- C. Hot flashes and abdominal discomfort
- D. Fatigue and depression
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Hot flashes and abdominal discomfort.' Clomiphene citrate, commonly known as Clomid, can lead to hot flashes and abdominal discomfort as side effects. It is important for the nurse to warn the patient about these potential effects. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because headaches and visual disturbances, nausea and vomiting, as well as fatigue and depression are not commonly associated with clomiphene citrate use.
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