which of the following organs are primarily affected by poorly managed hypertension
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ATI RN

ATI Pathophysiology Exam 1

1. Which of the following organs are primarily affected by poorly managed hypertension?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Poorly managed hypertension primarily affects the heart and kidneys. The heart is at risk of conditions like heart failure due to the increased workload from elevated blood pressure. The kidneys can suffer damage from longstanding hypertension, leading to kidney disease. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because the bladder, urethra, brain, skin, stomach, and intestines are not the primary organs affected by poorly managed hypertension.

2. What is the etiology and most likely treatment for myasthenia gravis in a 22-year-old female college student?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Myasthenia gravis is characterized by a decline in functioning acetylcholine receptors rather than autoimmune destruction of skeletal muscle cells (Choice A), cerebellar lesions (Choice C), or excess acetylcholinesterase production (Choice D). The most likely treatment for myasthenia gravis involves corticosteroids to reduce inflammation and intravenous immunoglobulins to block the antibodies attacking acetylcholine receptors. Intensive physical therapy and anabolic steroids are not primary treatments for myasthenia gravis.

3. A patient with a history of breast cancer is being prescribed tamoxifen (Nolvadex). What should the nurse include in the patient education?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Tamoxifen increases the risk of venous thromboembolism. Patients should be educated about signs and symptoms of blood clots, such as swelling, pain, or redness in the legs. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because tamoxifen is not associated with decreasing the risk of osteoporosis, causing hot flashes and menopausal symptoms, or causing weight gain and fluid retention.

4. A patient receiving isoniazid (INH) and rifampin (Rifadin) has a decreased urinary output and decreased sensation in his great toes. Which laboratory values should be assessed?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In a patient receiving isoniazid (INH) and rifampin (Rifadin) with symptoms of decreased urinary output and decreased sensation in great toes, assessing urine culture and sensitivity is crucial. These symptoms could indicate peripheral neuropathy, a known side effect of isoniazid, and rifampin can cause renal toxicity. Checking for any urinary tract infection or drug-induced nephrotoxicity is important. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they do not directly address the symptoms presented by the patient or the potential side effects of the medications mentioned.

5. How can a colony-stimulating factor affect the patient's erythrocyte count?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Colony-stimulating factors are substances that stimulate the production of blood cells in the bone marrow. Erythrocytes are red blood cells, so a colony-stimulating factor would specifically stimulate the growth of red blood cells, leading to an increase in the patient's erythrocyte count. Choice B is incorrect because colony-stimulating factors do not suppress T-cell production. Choice C is incorrect because colony-stimulating factors do not inhibit protein synthesis. Choice D is incorrect because colony-stimulating factors do not stimulate antibody production; they primarily affect the production of blood cells.

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