Nursing Elites

1. Which of the following management strategies is not included for a patient taking chemotherapeutic drugs?

• A. Limit exposure of pregnant visitors
• B. Protect client from infection
• C. Allow client to use makeup and wig
• D. Administer IV fluids as ordered

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Chemotherapy can lead to hair loss, and while using wigs is common, it is not a primary management strategy. The focus should be on limiting exposure to pregnant visitors to prevent harm to the fetus, protecting the client from infections due to a compromised immune system, and administering IV fluids as ordered to maintain hydration levels. Allowing the client to use makeup and wigs is not a primary concern when managing a patient taking chemotherapeutic drugs.

2. Diagnostic testing has resulted in a diagnosis of acute myeloid leukemia (AML) in an adult patient who is otherwise healthy. The patient and the care team have collaborated and the patient will soon begin induction therapy. The nurse should prepare the patient for which of the following?

• A. Daily treatment with targeted therapy medications
• B. Radiation therapy on a daily basis
• C. Hematopoietic stem cell transplantation
• D. An aggressive course of chemotherapy

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Attempts are made to achieve remission of AML by the aggressive administration of chemotherapy.

3. When planning care for a 77-year-old male admitted with suspected acute myeloid leukemia (AML), what epidemiologic fact should the nurse be aware of?

• A. Early diagnosis is associated with good outcomes.
• B. Five-year survival for older adults is approximately 50%.
• C. Five-year survival for patients over 75 years old is less than 2%.
• D. Survival rates are wholly dependent on the patient's pre-illness level of health.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In the context of AML, the 5-year survival rate significantly decreases with age. The 5-year survival rate for patients over 75 years old is less than 2% compared to 43% for those 50 years or younger, and 19% for those between 50 and 64 years. Choice A is incorrect as early diagnosis does not necessarily guarantee good outcomes in AML. Choice B is inaccurate as the 5-year survival rate is not approximately 50% for older adults with AML. Choice D is incorrect as survival rates for AML patients are influenced by various factors beyond just the pre-illness level of health.

4. In an adult patient, which assessment finding is considered diagnostic of Hodgkin lymphoma?

• A. Schwann cells
• B. Reed-Sternberg cells
• C. Lewy bodies
• D. Loops of Henle

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Reed-Sternberg cells. In Hodgkin lymphoma, the presence of Reed-Sternberg cells in lymph node biopsy is diagnostic. These cells are large, atypical cells originating from B-lymphocytes. They are distinctive in appearance and are key to diagnosing Hodgkin lymphoma. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because Schwann cells are related to nerve function, Lewy bodies are associated with Parkinson's disease, and Loops of Henle are structures in the kidney, none of which are specific to Hodgkin lymphoma.

5. The nurse manager is teaching the nursing staff about signs and symptoms related to hypercalcemia in a client with metastatic prostate cancer and tells the staff that which is a late sign of this oncological emergency?

• A. Headache
• B. Dysphagia
• C. Constipation
• D. Electrocardiographic changes

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, Electrocardiographic changes. In clients with metastatic prostate cancer, hypercalcemia can lead to various signs and symptoms. Electrocardiographic changes are considered a late sign of hypercalcemia, indicating severe electrolyte imbalance. Headache (choice A), dysphagia (choice B), and constipation (choice C) are earlier signs of hypercalcemia and may precede the development of more severe symptoms like electrocardiographic changes.

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