Nursing Elites

1. Which of the following is considered correct in dealing with a patient who has gastric cancer?

• A. After total gastrectomy, patient will have to increase fluids during meals
• B. After total gastrectomy, patient will need lots of fiber in the diet
• C. After total gastrectomy, patient will have to walk about after meals
• D. After total gastrectomy, patient will have to lie flat on bed after meals

Correct answer: D

Rationale: After a total gastrectomy, where the entire stomach is removed, patients can experience dumping syndrome due to the rapid passage of food into the small intestine. This condition can lead to symptoms such as nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, and abdominal cramps. Lying flat after meals can help slow down the movement of food into the intestines, reducing the risk of dumping syndrome. It's important for patients to follow dietary recommendations and positioning strategies to manage symptoms effectively.

2. An oncology patient has just returned from the post-anesthesia care unit after an open hemicolectomy. This patient’s plan of nursing care should prioritize which of the following?

• A. Assess the patient hourly for signs of compartment syndrome.
• B. Assess the patient’s fine motor skills once per shift.
• C. Assess the patient’s wound for dehiscence every 4 hours.
• D. Maintain the patient’s head of bed at 45 degrees or more at all times.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: After an open hemicolectomy (surgical removal of part of the colon), monitoring the surgical wound for signs of dehiscence (wound reopening) is a critical nursing priority. Dehiscence is a serious postoperative complication that can occur if the surgical site does not heal properly. Regular wound assessments every 4 hours allow the nurse to identify early signs of complications, such as redness, swelling, increased drainage, or separation of the wound edges. Early detection is key to preventing further complications, such as infection or evisceration (protrusion of abdominal organs through the wound).

3. The public health nurse is presenting a health-promotion class to a group at a local community center. Which intervention most directly addresses the leading cause of cancer deaths in North America?

• A. Monthly self-breast exams
• B. Smoking cessation
• C. Annual colonoscopies
• D. Monthly testicular exams

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In North America, lung cancer is the leading cause of cancer deaths among both men and women, and the primary risk factor for lung cancer is smoking. Therefore, promoting smoking cessation is a critical public health intervention that directly addresses this significant health issue. By helping individuals quit smoking, healthcare providers can significantly reduce the incidence of lung cancer and associated deaths, making this intervention a priority in cancer prevention efforts.

4. A patient on the oncology unit is receiving carmustine, a chemotherapy agent, and the nurse is aware that a significant side effect of this medication is thrombocytopenia. Which symptom should the nurse assess for in patients at risk for thrombocytopenia?

• A. Interrupted sleep pattern
• B. Hot flashes
• C. Epistaxis (nose bleed)
• D. Increased weight

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Thrombocytopenia is a condition characterized by a low platelet count, which increases the risk of bleeding and hemorrhage. Patients receiving chemotherapy agents like carmustine may experience thrombocytopenia as a significant side effect. Epistaxis (nosebleeds) is a common symptom associated with thrombocytopenia, as the blood vessels can become more fragile, and even minor trauma or spontaneous bleeding can occur. Therefore, assessing for signs of bleeding, including epistaxis, is crucial in patients at risk for thrombocytopenia.

5. Following an extensive diagnostic workup, an older adult patient has been diagnosed with a secondary myelodysplastic syndrome (MDS). What assessment question most directly addresses the potential etiology of this patient's health problem?

• A. Were you ever exposed to toxic chemicals in any of the jobs that you held?
• B. When you were younger, did you tend to have recurrent infections of any kind?
• C. Have your parents or siblings had any disease like this?
• D. Would you say that you've had a lot of sun exposure in your lifetime?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Secondary MDS can occur at any age and results from prior toxic exposure to chemicals, including chemotherapeutic medications. Asking about exposure to toxic chemicals in previous jobs directly addresses the potential etiology of this patient's health problem. Choices B, C, and D are not as directly related to the etiology of secondary MDS. Recurrent infections (Choice B) are not a known cause of MDS. Family history (Choice C) is more pertinent to primary MDS, which has a genetic component, while sun exposure (Choice D) is not associated with the etiology of MDS.

Similar Questions