which of the following is another term for billroth i
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

Oncology Questions

1. Which of the following terms is another name for Billroth I?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is Gastroduodenostomy. Billroth I procedure involves the removal of a part of the stomach (usually the distal portion) and anastomosis of the remaining stomach to the duodenum. This procedure is known as Gastroduodenostomy. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they refer to different surgical procedures involving connections with the jejunum, ileum, and creating an opening in the stomach, respectively, not the specific procedure described as Billroth I.

2. The nurse is caring for a client with multiple myeloma and is monitoring the client for signs of hypercalcemia. Which symptom would be an early indication?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In patients with multiple myeloma, hypercalcemia is a common complication due to the release of calcium from the bones as a result of osteolytic lesions. One of the early symptoms of hypercalcemia is polyuria, or increased urine output. This occurs because elevated calcium levels can lead to impaired renal function and increased renal excretion of calcium, which results in increased urine production. Early recognition of polyuria can help prompt further evaluation and management of hypercalcemia, as untreated hypercalcemia can lead to more severe complications.

3. Following an extensive diagnostic workup, an older adult patient has been diagnosed with a secondary myelodysplastic syndrome (MDS). What assessment question most directly addresses the potential etiology of this patient's health problem?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Secondary MDS can occur at any age and results from prior toxic exposure to chemicals, including chemotherapeutic medications. Asking about exposure to toxic chemicals in previous jobs directly addresses the potential etiology of this patient's health problem. Choices B, C, and D are not as directly related to the etiology of secondary MDS. Recurrent infections (Choice B) are not a known cause of MDS. Family history (Choice C) is more pertinent to primary MDS, which has a genetic component, while sun exposure (Choice D) is not associated with the etiology of MDS.

4. An oncology patient has just returned from the post-anesthesia care unit after an open hemicolectomy. This patient’s plan of nursing care should prioritize which of the following?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: After an open hemicolectomy (surgical removal of part of the colon), monitoring the surgical wound for signs of dehiscence (wound reopening) is a critical nursing priority. Dehiscence is a serious postoperative complication that can occur if the surgical site does not heal properly. Regular wound assessments every 4 hours allow the nurse to identify early signs of complications, such as redness, swelling, increased drainage, or separation of the wound edges. Early detection is key to preventing further complications, such as infection or evisceration (protrusion of abdominal organs through the wound).

5. A nurse works on an oncology unit and delegates personal hygiene to assistive personnel (AP). What action by the AP requires intervention from the nurse?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Skipping oral hygiene is not appropriate for a client, even if they are tired, as it increases the risk of infection.

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