Nursing Elites

1. Which of the following terms is another name for Billroth I?

• A. Gastroduodenostomy
• B. Gastrojejunostomy
• C. Gastroileostomy
• D. Gastrostomy

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is Gastroduodenostomy. Billroth I procedure involves the removal of a part of the stomach (usually the distal portion) and anastomosis of the remaining stomach to the duodenum. This procedure is known as Gastroduodenostomy. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they refer to different surgical procedures involving connections with the jejunum, ileum, and creating an opening in the stomach, respectively, not the specific procedure described as Billroth I.

2. The nurse knows that all of the following are risk factors for breast cancer except:

• A. Family history
• B. Nulliparity
• C. Chest xray
• D. Multiple sex partners

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Multiple sex partners are not a recognized risk factor for breast cancer. Breast cancer is primarily influenced by hormonal, genetic, and environmental factors, not sexual activity or the number of sexual partners. Established risk factors for breast cancer include family history, hormonal factors such as early menarche, late menopause, and nulliparity (having no children), as well as certain environmental exposures.

3. A client who is at risk for disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) has a serum fibrinogen level of 110 mg/dL. The nurse should take which of the following actions first?

• A. Recheck the fibrinogen level in 4 hours
• B. Notify the health care provider
• C. Continue to monitor the client
• D. Administer cryoprecipitate as prescribed

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A serum fibrinogen level of 110 mg/dL indicates a low level, which puts the client at risk for bleeding in DIC. The priority action for the nurse is to notify the health care provider. Rechecking the fibrinogen level may delay necessary interventions, administering cryoprecipitate should be done based on the provider's prescription, and while monitoring is important, immediate notification of the provider is crucial to address the low fibrinogen level promptly.

4. The community health nurse is instructing a group of young female clients about breast self-examination. The nurse should instruct the clients to perform the examination at which time?

• A. At the onset of menstruation
• B. Every month during ovulation
• C. Weekly at the same time of day
• D. 1 week after menstruation begins

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The optimal time for performing a breast self-examination (BSE) is about one week after menstruation begins, as this is when the breasts are least likely to be swollen, tender, or affected by hormonal changes. Hormonal fluctuations during the menstrual cycle can cause temporary changes in breast tissue, such as swelling, lumpiness, or tenderness, which may make it more difficult to detect any unusual lumps or changes. Conducting the examination during this period ensures that the breasts are in their natural state, making it easier to notice any abnormalities.

5. The nurse is reviewing the laboratory results of a client diagnosed with multiple myeloma. Which would the nurse expect to note specifically in this disorder?

• A. Increased calcium level
• B. Increased white blood cells
• C. Decreased blood urea nitrogen level
• D. Decreased number of plasma cells in the bone marrow

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In multiple myeloma, the nurse would expect to note an increased calcium level in the laboratory results. This elevation is due to bone destruction caused by the disease, releasing calcium into the bloodstream. Increased white blood cells (Choice B) are not typically associated with multiple myeloma. Additionally, a decreased blood urea nitrogen level (Choice C) is not a common finding in this disorder. Multiple myeloma is characterized by the proliferation of abnormal plasma cells in the bone marrow, leading to an increased number of plasma cells, not a decreased number (Choice D). Therefore, the correct answer is an increased calcium level.

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