Nursing Elites

1. What is a characteristic of normal cells?

• A. They have no functions
• B. They have a larger nucleus
• C. They undergo apoptosis
• D. They have a dark-colored nucleus

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is that normal cells undergo apoptosis, which is a programmed cell death process essential for maintaining tissue homeostasis. Choice A is incorrect as normal cells do have specific functions. Choice B is incorrect as the size of the nucleus may vary but is not a defining characteristic of normal cells. Choice D is incorrect as the color of the nucleus is not a standard characteristic of normal cells.

2. A nurse practitioner is assessing a patient who has a fever, malaise, and a white blood cell count that is elevated. Which of the following principles should guide the nurses management of the patients care?

• A. There is a need for the patient to be assessed for lymphoma.
• B. Infection is the most likely cause of the patients change in health status.
• C. The patient is exhibiting signs and symptoms of leukemia.
• D. The patient should undergo diagnostic testing for multiple myeloma.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: An elevated white blood cell (WBC) count, also known as leukocytosis, is most commonly a response to infection. When the body detects an infection, the immune system responds by increasing the production of white blood cells to fight off the invading pathogens. The accompanying symptoms of fever and malaise are typical signs of infection, supporting the likelihood that this patient’s health status is related to an infectious process rather than a more serious hematologic condition like lymphoma or leukemia.

3. When working with clients experiencing alopecia, what is the best method for a nurse to help them manage the psychosocial impact of this issue?

• A. Assisting the client in pre-planning for this event.
• B. Reassuring the client that alopecia is temporary.
• C. Teaching the client ways to protect the scalp.
• D. Telling the client that there are worse side effects.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Assisting the client in pre-planning for alopecia is the best method to help them manage the psychosocial impact of the issue. By helping clients anticipate and prepare for the challenges associated with alopecia, they can cope better with the psychological impact. Reassuring the client that alopecia is temporary (choice B) may provide false hope as some types of alopecia are permanent. Teaching ways to protect the scalp (choice C) is important but not the most effective method for managing the psychosocial impact. Telling the client that there are worse side effects (choice D) is dismissive of the client's feelings and not helpful in addressing the psychosocial impact of alopecia.

4. The nurse is caring for a patient with an advanced stage of breast cancer and the patient has recently learned that her cancer has metastasized. The nurse enters the room and finds the patient struggling to breathe and the nurse’s rapid assessment reveals that the patient’s jugular veins are distended. The nurse should suspect the development of what oncologic emergency?

• A. Increased intracranial pressure
• B. Superior vena cava syndrome (SVCS)
• C. Spinal cord compression
• D. Metastatic tumor of the neck

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Superior vena cava syndrome (SVCS) occurs when the superior vena cava, the large vein responsible for returning blood from the upper body to the heart, becomes obstructed or compressed, often due to a tumor, such as metastasized breast cancer. SVCS results in impaired venous drainage, leading to symptoms like distended jugular veins, facial swelling, difficulty breathing (dyspnea), and upper body edema. It is a medical emergency that requires prompt intervention to restore blood flow and alleviate symptoms.

5. A patient has been found to have an indolent neoplasm. The nurse should recognize what implication of this condition?

• A. The patient faces a significant risk of malignancy.
• B. The patient has a myeloid form of leukemia.
• C. The patient has a lymphocytic form of leukemia.
• D. The patient has a major risk factor for hemophilia.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'The patient faces a significant risk of malignancy.' Indolent neoplasms are characterized by their slow growth and relatively low malignancy potential; however, they do have the capability to progress to malignancy over time. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they make assumptions about specific types of leukemia and hemophilia, which are not necessarily related to the presence of an indolent neoplasm.

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