a client with cancer is admitted to a short term rehabilitation facility the nurse prepares to administer the clients oral chemotherapy medications wh
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Oncology Quiz

1. A client with cancer is admitted to a short-term rehabilitation facility. The nurse prepares to administer the client’s oral chemotherapy medications. What action by the nurse is most appropriate?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Oral chemotherapy requires the same precautions as IV chemotherapy; personal protective equipment is necessary.

2. Nurse Lisa is assessing a client who has just completed radiation therapy to the neck area. Which of the following findings is most concerning?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Difficulty swallowing (dysphagia) following radiation therapy to the neck area is a significant concern because it can indicate serious complications such as esophageal stricture, inflammation, or damage to the surrounding tissues, including the esophagus. This can lead to malnutrition, dehydration, or aspiration, all of which require prompt intervention. Radiation therapy can cause irritation and scarring in the esophageal and throat tissues, which may progressively worsen if not treated. Therefore, dysphagia should be addressed immediately to prevent further complications.

3. A new nurse has been assigned a client who is in the hospital to receive iodine-131 treatment. Which action by the nurse is best?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Handling radioactive excreta requires special precautions; the nurse must be familiar with the facility's policies.

4. Following an extensive diagnostic workup, an older adult patient has been diagnosed with a secondary myelodysplastic syndrome (MDS). What assessment question most directly addresses the potential etiology of this patient's health problem?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Secondary MDS can occur at any age and results from prior toxic exposure to chemicals, including chemotherapeutic medications. Asking about exposure to toxic chemicals in previous jobs directly addresses the potential etiology of this patient's health problem. Choices B, C, and D are not as directly related to the etiology of secondary MDS. Recurrent infections (Choice B) are not a known cause of MDS. Family history (Choice C) is more pertinent to primary MDS, which has a genetic component, while sun exposure (Choice D) is not associated with the etiology of MDS.

5. A patient diagnosed with polycythemia vera presents to the clinic for routine bloodwork. What should the nurse monitor for in this patient as a priority?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In polycythemia vera, there is an overproduction of red blood cells, white blood cells, and platelets, which leads to increased blood viscosity and a high risk for thrombosis (blood clot formation). Monitoring the platelet count is a priority because elevated platelet levels contribute significantly to the risk of developing blood clots, which can result in life-threatening complications such as strokes, heart attacks, or deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Therefore, regular monitoring of the platelet count is essential to assess the patient’s risk for thrombosis and to guide treatment decisions, such as phlebotomy or medication adjustments to lower platelet levels.

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