Nursing Elites

1. Which of the following is an example of a sentinel event?

• A. A patient fall with no injury
• B. A medication error that results in no harm
• C. A patient suicide while in a healthcare facility
• D. A near miss incident

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C, a patient suicide while in a healthcare facility. A sentinel event is an unexpected occurrence involving death or serious physical or psychological injury. Choices A, B, and D do not meet the criteria for sentinel events as described by The Joint Commission, as they do not involve death or serious harm to the patient.

2. A healthcare professional is admitting a client who has rubella. Which of the following types of transmission-based precautions should the nurse initiate?

• A. Airborne
• B. Protective environment
• C. Contact
• D. Droplet

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is 'B: Protective environment.' Rubella requires placing the client in a protective environment due to its airborne precautions. Airborne precautions are typically used for diseases that are spread through tiny droplets that remain in the air for an extended period, like tuberculosis. Contact precautions are used for diseases that are spread by direct or indirect contact, such as MRSA. Droplet precautions are implemented for diseases transmitted through respiratory droplets, like influenza. Therefore, in the case of rubella, airborne precautions in a protective environment are necessary.

3. What is the main purpose of a utilization review?

• A. Evaluate patient outcomes
• B. Ensure compliance with regulations
• C. Reduce hospital readmissions
• D. Assess financial impact

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The main purpose of a utilization review is to evaluate patient outcomes and ensure that patients receive appropriate care based on medical necessity and quality standards. While ensuring compliance with regulations, reducing hospital readmissions, and assessing financial impact are important aspects of healthcare management, the primary goal of utilization review is to focus on the quality and effectiveness of patient care.

4. Which of the following indicators is viewed as important by the nurse manager in relation to a performance model?

• A. Patient outcomes
• B. Rapport with staff
• C. Daily job performance
• D. Flexibility

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Patient outcomes. In a performance model, one of the key indicators that a nurse manager would focus on is patient outcomes. Patient outcomes are a direct reflection of the quality of care provided by the staff, making it a crucial aspect of evaluating performance. Choice B, rapport with staff, though important for team dynamics, is not directly related to a performance model that primarily assesses job performance. Choice C, daily job performance, is relevant but more of an outcome rather than an indicator itself. Choice D, flexibility, is a valuable trait but not specifically highlighted in the context of a performance model.

5. What is the primary focus of a performance appraisal for nursing staff?

• A. To identify areas for salary increases
• B. To evaluate overall job performance
• C. To provide feedback on clinical skills
• D. To determine eligibility for promotions

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The primary focus of a performance appraisal for nursing staff is to provide feedback on clinical skills, identify areas for improvement, and support professional development. While salary increases, overall job performance evaluation, and promotions may be factors considered during a performance appraisal, the primary goal is to assess and enhance clinical skills to ensure high-quality patient care.

Similar Questions