ATI RN
RN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment 2019 B
1. Which of the following is a recommended approach for handling aggressive behavior in a mental health setting?
- A. Encourage the client to express their feelings through physical activity
- B. Avoid making eye contact to prevent escalation
- C. Use pharmacological interventions immediately
- D. Maintain eye contact, offer clear choices, and set boundaries
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The recommended approach for handling aggressive behavior in a mental health setting is to maintain eye contact, offer clear choices, and set boundaries. This approach can help de-escalate the situation by establishing communication and structure. Choice A is incorrect as encouraging physical activity may not be suitable during an aggressive episode. Choice B is incorrect because avoiding eye contact can hinder communication and resolution. Choice C is also incorrect as pharmacological interventions should not be the immediate go-to method for managing aggression unless absolutely necessary.
2. After placing the patient back in bed, what should the nurse do next?
- A. Re-assess the patient.
- B. Complete an incident report.
- C. Notify the health care provider.
- D. Do nothing, no harm has occurred.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: After placing the patient back in bed, the nurse should notify the health care provider. This is important because the health care provider needs to be informed of the incident and assess the patient further to ensure no underlying injuries or issues exist. Re-assessing the patient is crucial but notifying the health care provider takes precedence in this situation. Completing an incident report is important for documentation purposes but not the immediate next step. Doing nothing is incorrect as there was an incident involving a fall that needs further evaluation.
3. The nurse is caring for a patient on contact precautions. Which action will be most appropriate to prevent the spread of disease?
- A. Wear a gown, gloves, face mask, and goggles for interactions with the patient.
- B. Transport the patient safely and quickly when going to the radiology department.
- C. Place the patient in a room with negative airflow.
- D. Use a dedicated blood pressure cuff that stays in the room and is used for that patient only.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is to use a dedicated blood pressure cuff that stays in the room and is used for that patient only. Patients on contact precautions require dedicated equipment to prevent the spread of disease. Using one blood pressure cuff exclusively for the patient on contact precautions helps minimize the risk of transmitting infections to other patients. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because while wearing protective gear and isolating the patient in a room with negative airflow are important infection control measures, using dedicated equipment for the patient on contact precautions is specifically recommended to prevent the spread of disease in this scenario.
4. A client has a new prescription for lisinopril. Which of the following statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?
- A. I should take this medication with food
- B. I should report a cough to my provider
- C. I should expect to have facial swelling when taking this medication
- D. I should increase my intake of potassium-rich foods
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Reporting a cough is crucial when taking lisinopril as it can be a sign of a serious side effect, such as angioedema or cough associated with ACE inhibitors. Option A is incorrect because lisinopril can be taken with or without food. Option C is incorrect as facial swelling is not an expected side effect of lisinopril. Option D is incorrect because lisinopril can cause hyperkalemia, so increasing potassium-rich foods without healthcare provider guidance can be dangerous.
5. A nurse is assessing a client following a head injury and a brief loss of consciousness. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score of 12
- B. Edematous bruise on the forehead
- C. Small drops of clear fluid in the left ear
- D. Pupils are 4 mm and reactive to light
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Clear fluid draining from the ear may indicate a cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) leak, which is a serious complication following a head injury. Reporting this finding is crucial as it may require immediate medical intervention to prevent further complications. Choices A, B, and D are not as concerning as a CSF leak. A GCS score of 12 is relatively high, indicating a mild level of consciousness alteration. An edematous bruise on the forehead is a common physical finding after a head injury. Pupils that are 4 mm and reactive to light suggest normal pupillary function.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
ATI RN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 30 days access
ATI RN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 30 days access