Nursing Elites

1. Which of the following is a key feature of the diagnosis of ASD according to the DSM V?

• A. Unusual responses to sensory input
• B. Social isolation
• C. Repetitive behaviors
• D. Delayed motor development

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In the DSM V, one of the key diagnostic criteria for Autism Spectrum Disorder (ASD) is unusual responses to sensory input. These atypical responses can include hypersensitivity or hyposensitivity to sensory stimuli, such as sound, touch, taste, or smell. These sensory processing differences are important in the diagnosis of ASD because they can significantly impact an individual's daily functioning and behavior. Social isolation and repetitive behaviors are associated features of ASD but are not the key diagnostic criteria according to the DSM V. Delayed motor development may be observed in some individuals with ASD, but it is not a key feature used for diagnosis in the DSM V.

2. A child has Wilms' tumor and is scheduled for surgery. Which of the following actions should the nurse include in the plan of care?

• A. Palpate the child's abdomen daily for tumor size.
• B. Reposition the child frequently.
• C. Prepare the child for chemotherapy.
• D. Avoid palpating the abdomen.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Palpating the abdomen of a child with Wilms' tumor should be avoided to prevent the risk of rupturing the tumor and spreading cancer cells. This action is crucial to maintain the child's safety and prevent potential complications before surgery.

3. The nurse is reviewing the home medication list with the patient. The nurse recognizes that hydrochlorothiazide is used primarily for which condition?

• A. Hypertension
• B. Edema
• C. Diabetes insipidus
• D. Protection against postmenopausal osteoporosis

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Hydrochlorothiazide is primarily indicated for hypertension (HTN). Thiazides like hydrochlorothiazide are commonly the first-line treatment for hypertension. While hydrochlorothiazide can be used for edema, diabetes insipidus, and postmenopausal osteoporosis to some extent, its main use and efficacy lie in managing hypertension.

4. Which is the priority nursing assessment when providing care for an infant at risk for dehydration?

• A. Urine output
• B. Urine specific gravity
• C. Vital signs
• D. Daily weight

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is Daily weight. Daily weight is a crucial assessment in infants at risk for dehydration because changes in weight can indicate fluid balance and dehydration status. It is essential to monitor daily weight to promptly identify and manage dehydration in infants.

5. Parents are speaking with the urologist about their son's undescended testicle. Which statement by the child's father causes the nurse to determine he understands the information presented?

• A. An undescended testicle can reduce fertility.
• B. The testicle usually descends spontaneously during the first month of life.
• C. Surgical correction reduces the risk for testicular tumors.
• D. The optimal time to surgically correct the condition is at diagnosis.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because an undescended testicle can reduce fertility. Even after surgical correction (orchiopexy), fertility rates may be reduced, especially when one testis remains undescended. The statement in choice B is incorrect as the testicle should have descended into the scrotum by the time the infant is 4-6 months old. While choice C is true that surgical correction can reduce the risk of testicular tumors, the question focuses on the father's understanding of the information presented, which is better reflected in choice A. Choice D is incorrect because the optimal time for surgical correction of an undescended testicle is typically around 6-18 months of age, not necessarily at the time of diagnosis.

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