which of the following is a form of primary prevention
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

Nutrition ATI Test

1. Which of the following is a form of primary prevention?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, 'Immunization.' Primary prevention aims to prevent disease before it occurs by preventing exposure to risk factors. Immunization is a classic example of primary prevention as it helps prevent the development of infectious diseases. Choice A, 'Regular Check-ups,' is more related to secondary prevention by detecting diseases early. Choice B, 'Regular Screening,' is also more aligned with secondary prevention as it involves early detection of diseases. Choice C, 'Self-Medication,' is not a form of primary prevention but rather a risky practice that can lead to adverse outcomes.

2. People with only one arm or hand may benefit from using a ____ when eating?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A rocker knife is specifically designed for individuals with limited use of one hand or arm, allowing them to cut food easily. This makes it a suitable option for people with only one arm or hand. Choice A, a dish with suction cups, may not directly aid in cutting food with one hand. Choice C, an utensil holder, is not typically used for cutting food. Choice D, a flexible straw, is more related to drinking liquids and not specifically designed to assist in cutting food one-handed.

3. The purpose of chest percussion and vibration is to loosen secretions in the lungs. The difference between the procedures is:

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Chest percussion involves the use of rhythmic tapping to dislodge mucus from the lungs, facilitating its movement toward the larger airways where it can be expelled. This technique is particularly important in conditions where mucus retention is a significant risk factor for infection. The key difference between chest percussion and vibration is that percussion involves slapping the chest to loosen secretions, while vibration involves shaking the secretions along with the inhalation, aiding in moving the loosened secretions upwards for easier removal. Choices A, B, and C do not accurately describe the main difference between chest percussion and vibration, making them incorrect.

4. What does oliguria lead to in patients with acute kidney injury?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In patients with acute kidney injury, oliguria (reduced urine output) often results in sodium retention and hyperkalemia (elevated levels of potassium). This is due to the kidneys' decreased capacity to excrete these substances. Choice A is incorrect because hypophosphatemia and overgrowth of bone tissue are not direct consequences of oliguria in acute kidney injury. Choice B is incorrect because an increase in blood potassium levels is not caused by excessive excretion of parathyroid hormone but rather by decreased excretion of potassium. Choice D is incorrect because edema is not caused by increased urine production but rather by fluid overload due to decreased urine output.

5. A nurse is providing nutritional information to a client with osteoporosis. Which food should the nurse recommend as being the highest in calcium?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Canned salmon with bones is high in calcium.

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