Nursing Elites

1. Which of the following diuretics inhibits sodium reabsorption in the kidneys while sparing K+ and hydrogen ions?

• A. Spironolactone
• B. Furosemide
• C. Hydrochlorothiazide
• D. Bumetanide

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Spironolactone is the correct answer as it is classified as a potassium-sparing diuretic. It works by inhibiting sodium reabsorption in the kidneys while promoting the retention of potassium and hydrogen ions. This mechanism of action helps in reducing fluid retention without causing excessive loss of potassium, which is a common side effect of other diuretics. Furosemide (choice B), Hydrochlorothiazide (choice C), and Bumetanide (choice D) are not correct as they are not potassium-sparing diuretics. Furosemide and Bumetanide are loop diuretics that inhibit sodium, potassium, and chloride reabsorption in the loop of Henle. Hydrochlorothiazide is a thiazide diuretic that inhibits sodium and chloride reabsorption in the distal convoluted tubule, leading to potassium loss.

2. A client with a UTI and a history of recurrent infections asks why the provider has not yet prescribed an antibiotic. The nurse should explain that the provider has to wait for the results of which of the following laboratory tests to identify which antibiotic to prescribe?

• A. Gram stain
• B. Culture
• C. Sensitivity
• D. Specific gravity

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In the case of a UTI, a sensitivity test is crucial as it identifies the most effective antibiotic to target the specific microorganism causing the infection. This test helps in prescribing the appropriate antibiotic for successful treatment and preventing antibiotic resistance. While a Gram stain and culture are important in diagnosing a UTI, the sensitivity test specifically determines the most suitable antibiotic. Specific gravity, on the other hand, is not related to identifying the appropriate antibiotic for a UTI.

3. A client has a new prescription for nitroglycerin sublingual tablets. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Take one tablet at the first sign of chest pain.
• B. If pain is not relieved, take another tablet in 10 minutes.
• C. You can take up to five tablets in 15 minutes.
• D. Swallow the tablet with water.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client with a new prescription for nitroglycerin sublingual tablets is to take one tablet at the first sign of chest pain. If the pain is not relieved after 5 minutes, the client should call 911 and take a second tablet. Taking more than the recommended dose can lead to serious side effects, and swallowing the tablet would not provide the rapid effect needed in cases of chest pain. Choice A is correct because it aligns with the standard protocol for nitroglycerin use in treating angina. Choice B is incorrect as the second tablet should be taken after 5 minutes, not 10 minutes. Choice C is incorrect as taking up to five tablets in 15 minutes is excessive and can result in serious complications. Choice D is incorrect as nitroglycerin sublingual tablets should be placed under the tongue for rapid absorption, not swallowed.

4. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer a transfusion of a unit of packed red blood cells (PRBCs) for a client who has severe anemia. Which of the following interventions will prevent an acute hemolytic reaction?

• A. Ensure that the client has a patent IV line before obtaining the blood product from the refrigerator.
• B. Obtain help from another healthcare professional to confirm the correct client and blood product.
• C. Take a complete set of vital signs before beginning the transfusion and periodically during the transfusion.
• D. Stay with the client for the first 15 to 30 minutes of the transfusion.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Obtaining help from another healthcare professional to confirm the correct client and blood product is crucial in preventing an acute hemolytic reaction during a blood transfusion. This reaction occurs due to ABO or Rh incompatibility. Verifying the correct client and blood product reduces the risk of administering the wrong blood type, which could lead to a life-threatening reaction. Checking for patency of the IV line (Choice A) is important but does not directly prevent an acute hemolytic reaction. Monitoring vital signs (Choice C) is essential for detecting transfusion reactions but does not prevent them. Staying with the client (Choice D) is important for early recognition of adverse reactions but does not address the root cause of preventing an acute hemolytic reaction.

5. A client is receiving treatment with bevacizumab. Which of the following findings should the nurse monitor?

• A. Hypertension
• B. Hypokalemia
• C. Hyperglycemia
• D. Hypocalcemia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Correct Answer: A. Bevacizumab is known to cause hypertension as a common adverse effect. The nurse should closely monitor the client's blood pressure to detect and manage this potential side effect promptly. Choice B, hypokalemia, is not typically associated with bevacizumab treatment. Choice C, hyperglycemia, is not a common adverse effect of bevacizumab. Choice D, hypocalcemia, is not a recognized side effect of bevacizumab.

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