ATI RN
ATI Leadership Proctored
1. Which of the following best describes the concept of evidence-based management?
- A. Using personal experience to make managerial decisions
- B. Combining managerial expertise with the latest research evidence
- C. Using intuition and experience to guide management decisions
- D. Relying on peer-reviewed literature to inform management practices
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The concept of evidence-based management involves combining managerial expertise with the latest research evidence to make informed decisions. Choice A is incorrect because relying solely on personal experience may not align with the best available evidence. Choice C is incorrect as it emphasizes intuition over research evidence. Choice D is incorrect because evidence-based management involves not only peer-reviewed literature but also incorporating managerial expertise.
2. The time period to give as notice for an appraisal is:
- A. One day.
- B. None.
- C. One week.
- D. Two days.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: 'Two days.' It is preferable to give two days' notice for a performance appraisal. Giving only one day's notice (Choice A) might not provide sufficient time for the employee to prepare adequately for the appraisal. Choice B, 'None,' is incorrect because it is essential to give advance notice for an appraisal to allow the employee time to get ready. Choice C, 'One week,' is too long of a notice period for a standard performance appraisal and could lead to unnecessary delays.
3. One of the most useful tools to determine reasons for turnover is:
- A. Questioning.
- B. Surveys.
- C. Employee forums.
- D. Telephone calls.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Surveys are one of the most effective tools to determine reasons for turnover because they allow employees to provide feedback anonymously, leading to more truthful responses. While questioning can be part of the process, surveys provide a structured and standardized way to collect data. Employee forums may not always elicit honest responses due to peer pressure or fear of repercussions. Telephone calls may not reach all employees and do not guarantee anonymity, potentially leading to biased or incomplete information.
4. Verbal interventions with an agitated patient may be calming. These interventions include:
- A. Holding and reassuring the patient
- B. Encouraging other staff to distract the patient
- C. Remaining calm and keeping an arm's distance
- D. Standing close to the patient while talking
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Remaining calm and keeping an arm's distance. Agitated individuals benefit from minimal verbal and physical stimulation. They respond to their environment based on how nurses interact with them. If an individual feels threatened or cornered, the response will generally be self-protective and reactive. Standing close to the patient (choice D) can be perceived as invasive and may escalate the situation. Holding and reassuring the patient (choice A) may not be effective if the patient perceives it as intrusive. Encouraging other staff to distract the patient (choice B) may introduce unnecessary stimulation. Therefore, the recommended approach is to remain calm and keep a safe distance to provide a non-threatening environment for the agitated patient.
5. Under which category does a violation of the nurse practice act fall?
- A. Juvenile
- B. Felony
- C. Misdemeanor
- D. Tort
Correct answer: B
Rationale: A violation of the nurse practice act falls under the category of a felony. Felony offenses are the most serious and can include acts like homicide and violations of professional practice regulations. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because violations of the nurse practice act are considered more severe than misdemeanors, torts, or related to juvenile cases.
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