ATI RN
ATI Leadership Proctored Exam 2023 Quizlet
1. What is the primary focus of a performance appraisal for nursing staff?
- A. To identify areas for salary increases
- B. To evaluate overall job performance
- C. To provide feedback on clinical skills
- D. To determine eligibility for promotions
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The primary focus of a performance appraisal for nursing staff is to provide feedback on clinical skills, identify areas for improvement, and support professional development. While salary increases, overall job performance evaluation, and promotions may be factors considered during a performance appraisal, the primary goal is to assess and enhance clinical skills to ensure high-quality patient care.
2. Which of the following actions best demonstrates effective delegation by a nurse manager?
- A. Retaining all tasks
- B. Assigning tasks without supervision
- C. Delegating tasks and providing oversight
- D. Avoiding delegation
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Delegating tasks and providing oversight. Effective delegation by a nurse manager involves appropriately assigning tasks to others while also ensuring proper supervision and follow-up. This allows the nurse manager to distribute workload efficiently while maintaining accountability and quality of care. Choices A and D are incorrect as retaining all tasks or avoiding delegation can lead to burnout, inefficiency, and lack of skill development among team members. Choice B is incorrect as assigning tasks without supervision may result in errors, lack of clarity, and potential patient safety issues.
3. For a 55-year-old female patient with type 2 diabetes and a nursing diagnosis of imbalanced nutrition: more than body requirements, which goal is most important?
- A. The patient will reach a glycosylated hemoglobin level of less than 7%.
- B. The patient will follow a diet and exercise plan that results in weight loss.
- C. The patient will choose a diet that distributes calories throughout the day.
- D. The patient will state the reasons for eliminating simple sugars in the diet.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The most important goal for a 55-year-old female patient with type 2 diabetes and imbalanced nutrition due to more than body requirements is to reach a glycosylated hemoglobin level of less than 7%. This goal directly addresses the management of diabetes and is crucial in preventing complications associated with high blood sugar levels. Choice B focuses on weight loss, which may be beneficial but is not as critical as controlling blood sugar levels. Choice C, distributing calories throughout the day, is important for glycemic control but not as immediate as reaching a target HbA1c level. Choice D, stating the reasons for eliminating simple sugars, is a good educational goal but not as urgent as achieving glycemic control.
4. Which of the following should be included in a discussion of advance directives with new nurse graduates?
- A. According to the Patient Self-Determination Act, nurses are required to inform clients of their right to create an advance directive.
- B. The advance directive designates an individual who will make financial decisions for the client if he or she is unable to do so.
- C. A living will designates who will make health-care decisions for an individual in the event the individual is unable or incompetent to make his or her own decisions.
- D. The advance directive designates a health-care surrogate who will make known the client�s wishes regarding medical treatment if the client is unable to do so.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: According to the Patient Self-Determination Act, nurses are required to inform clients of their right to create an advance directive.
5. After change-of-shift report, which patient should the nurse assess first?
- A. 19-year-old with type 1 diabetes who was admitted with possible dawn phenomenon
- B. 35-year-old with type 1 diabetes whose most recent blood glucose reading was 230 mg/dL
- C. 60-year-old with hyperosmolar hyperglycemic syndrome who has poor skin turgor and dry oral mucosa
- D. 68-year-old with type 2 diabetes who has severe peripheral neuropathy and complains of burning foot pain
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The patient with hyperosmolar hyperglycemic syndrome who presents with poor skin turgor and dry oral mucosa requires immediate attention. These signs indicate severe dehydration and potential electrolyte imbalances, which can lead to serious complications. Assessing this patient first allows for prompt intervention and monitoring to stabilize their condition. Choice A is less urgent as the patient has possible dawn phenomenon, which is a common early-morning rise in blood glucose levels. Choice B, with a blood glucose reading of 230 mg/dL, indicates hyperglycemia but does not present with signs of severe dehydration like the patient in choice C. Choice D, with peripheral neuropathy and foot pain, is important but not as urgent as addressing severe dehydration and electrolyte imbalances in the patient with hyperosmolar hyperglycemic syndrome.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
ATI RN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 30 days access
ATI RN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 30 days access