ATI RN
ATI Mental Health Proctored Exam 2023
1. Which statement is an example of reflection?
- A. I think this feeling will pass.
- B. So you are saying that life has no meaning.
- C. I'm not sure I understand what you mean.
- D. You look sad.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Reflection involves restating the patient's words or feelings to show understanding and encourage further discussion. Choice B restates the patient's statement, demonstrating active listening and empathy.
2. A healthcare professional is teaching a patient about relaxation techniques to manage anxiety. Which technique is the healthcare professional most likely to recommend?
- A. Deep breathing exercises
- B. Physical exercise
- C. Mindfulness meditation
- D. Journaling
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Deep breathing exercises are a widely recommended technique for managing anxiety and promoting relaxation. By focusing on deep, slow breaths, individuals can activate the body's relaxation response, leading to decreased anxiety levels and an overall sense of calm. This technique is easy to learn, can be practiced anywhere, and is often suggested by healthcare professionals as a first-line approach for anxiety management. Physical exercise, mindfulness meditation, and journaling are also beneficial for mental well-being but may not be the first choice when specifically targeting acute anxiety management.
3. Kyle, a patient with schizophrenia, began taking the first-generation antipsychotic haloperidol (Haldol) last week. One day you find him sitting very stiffly and not moving. He is diaphoretic, and when you ask if he is okay, he seems unable to respond verbally. His vital signs are: BP 170/100, P 110, T 104.2°F. What is the priority nursing intervention? Select one that does not apply.
- A. Hold his medication and contact his prescriber.
- B. Wipe him with a washcloth wet with cold water or alcohol.
- C. Administer a medication such as benztropine IM to correct this dystonic reaction.
- D. Reassure him that although there is no treatment for his tardive dyskinesia, it will pass.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The patient's symptoms, including stiffness, diaphoresis, inability to respond verbally, and vital sign abnormalities, are indicative of neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS), a serious and potentially life-threatening side effect of antipsychotic medications. Administering a medication such as benztropine intramuscularly is the priority to address the dystonic reaction associated with NMS. This intervention can help alleviate symptoms and prevent further complications. Holding the medication and contacting the prescriber may be necessary but addressing the acute symptoms takes precedence. Wiping the patient with a cold washcloth or alcohol would not address the underlying medical emergency. Reassuring the patient about tardive dyskinesia is irrelevant and not the immediate concern in this scenario.
4. Which therapeutic approach is most effective for managing obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD)?
- A. Cognitive-behavioral therapy
- B. Psychoanalysis
- C. Medication management
- D. Group therapy
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT), especially exposure and response prevention, is considered the most effective therapeutic approach for managing obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD). CBT helps individuals identify and modify their distorted beliefs and behaviors related to OCD, while exposure and response prevention specifically target the core symptoms of OCD by gradually exposing the individual to feared stimuli and preventing compulsive responses. While medication management can be used as an adjunct to therapy, CBT has shown to have long-lasting benefits in reducing OCD symptoms and improving the overall quality of life. Psychoanalysis focuses more on exploring unconscious conflicts and childhood experiences, which may not be as effective for OCD. Group therapy can be beneficial as a supplemental treatment but is not typically as effective as individual CBT tailored to the specific needs of the individual with OCD.
5. Which approach involves surgically implanting electrodes into specific areas of the brain to stimulate regions identified as underactive in depression?
- A. Transcranial magnetic stimulation
- B. Deep brain stimulation
- C. Vagus nerve stimulation
- D. Electroconvulsive therapy
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Deep brain stimulation is a treatment approach that involves the surgical implantation of electrodes into specific areas of the brain to stimulate regions identified as underactive in depression. This method aims to modulate brain activity and has shown effectiveness in treating certain cases of depression.
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