Nursing Elites

1. When planning care for a pediatric client diagnosed with bacterial meningitis, what is the priority nursing diagnosis?

• A. Impaired Gas Exchange
• B. Risk for Infection
• C. Anxiety (parental)
• D. Acute Pain

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The priority nursing diagnosis when caring for a pediatric client with bacterial meningitis is 'Impaired Gas Exchange.' This diagnosis takes precedence due to the potential for respiratory complications associated with the condition. Bacterial meningitis can lead to increased intracranial pressure, compromising the child's ability to ventilate adequately. Therefore, monitoring and addressing any signs of respiratory distress are crucial in the care of these patients.

2. A patient develops hypotension, laryngeal edema, and bronchospasm after eating peanuts. Which medication should the nurse prepare to administer?

• A. Promethazine
• B. Epinephrine
• C. Diphenhydramine
• D. Hydroxyzine

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The patient is exhibiting symptoms of anaphylaxis triggered by a peanut allergy, a severe and potentially life-threatening allergic reaction. The appropriate medication for anaphylaxis is epinephrine. Epinephrine acts quickly to reverse the symptoms by constricting blood vessels, relaxing bronchial muscles, and reducing laryngeal edema, making it the drug of choice for this situation. Promethazine, diphenhydramine, and hydroxyzine are not the first-line treatments for anaphylaxis. Promethazine is an antihistamine with sedative effects, Diphenhydramine is an antihistamine, and Hydroxyzine is also an antihistamine with sedative properties. While these medications can help with mild allergic reactions, they are not as effective or fast-acting as epinephrine in treating the severe manifestations of anaphylaxis.

3. A parent of an infant with gastroesophageal reflux is being taught by a nurse. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the teaching?

• A. Offer the infant feedings every 2 hours.
• B. Position the infant upright after feedings.
• C. Feed the infant thickened formula.
• D. Place the infant in a prone position after feedings.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Correct posture after feedings is crucial for an infant with gastroesophageal reflux to reduce the risk of regurgitation. Placing the infant upright helps prevent the backflow of stomach contents into the esophagus, minimizing symptoms of reflux.

4. During a developmental screening, a 4-year-old child is asked to perform a task. Which of the following tasks should the nurse expect the child to perform?

• A. Draw a stick figure with seven body parts
• B. Draw a circle
• C. Identify right from left hand
• D. Tie their shoelaces

Correct answer: B

Rationale: At 4 years old, children are typically able to draw a circle, which is a developmental milestone for their age. Drawing a stick figure with specific body parts might be beyond their developmental level, identifying right from left hand can be challenging, and tying shoelaces requires more advanced motor skills.

5. Which clean-catch urinalysis finding should raise the most concern for a child admitted to an urgent care center to rule out a urinary tract infection?

• A. 2+ white blood cells
• B. 1+ red blood cells
• C. Urine appearance: cloudy
• D. Specific gravity: 1.009

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A specific gravity of 1.009 is low, indicating diluted urine, which can be concerning in the context of a urinary tract infection. Diluted urine may suggest inadequate concentration due to increased fluid intake or impaired kidney function, which are important considerations in the assessment of a possible UTI.

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