which intervention should be prioritized for a client experiencing panic level anxiety
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

RN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment 2019 B with NGN

1. Which intervention should be prioritized for a client experiencing panic-level anxiety?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: During panic-level anxiety, the priority is to provide reassurance and remain with the client. This intervention helps to offer immediate support, comfort, and a sense of safety to the client. Postponing health teaching until anxiety subsides (Choice A) is not appropriate as the client's immediate emotional needs are more critical. Encouraging participation in group therapy (Choice B) may be beneficial in the long term but is not the priority during a panic attack. While monitoring vital signs (Choice C) is important, providing reassurance and support take precedence in managing panic-level anxiety.

2. When is removal of the restraints by the nurse appropriate?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. The nurse can safely remove restraints once no aggressive behavior is observed after releasing two extremity restraints for an hour. Choice A is incorrect because the removal of restraints should be based on the client's behavior rather than just the effect of medication. Choice C is incorrect as exploring reasons for aggressive behavior should be done before or during the intervention, not as a condition for removing restraints. Choice D is incorrect since an apology from the client does not guarantee a change in behavior or indicate that it is safe to remove the restraints.

3. A patient requires repositioning every 2 hours. Which task can the nurse delegate to the nursing assistive personnel?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Changing the patient's position.' Repositioning the patient every 2 hours can be delegated to nursing assistive personnel as it involves physically moving the patient. Tasks like determining the level of comfort (choice A) and assessing circulation (choice D) are clinical judgments that require a nursing license and should be performed by the nurse. Similarly, identifying immobility hazards (choice C) involves critical thinking and assessment skills that are within the nurse's scope of practice.

4. A nurse is preparing to measure a client's level of oxygen saturation and observes edema of both hands and thickened toenails. The nurse should apply the pulse oximeter probe to which of the following locations?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a client has edema of both hands and thickened toenails, these conditions can impede accurate readings from the finger and toe locations. The earlobe is the best alternative site for the pulse oximeter probe in this scenario. Placing the probe on the earlobe will help ensure a more accurate measurement of oxygen saturation despite the issues with the hands and toenails. Therefore, the correct answer is to apply the pulse oximeter probe to the earlobe. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because of the potential limitations presented by the edema and thickened toenails.

5. A nurse is caring for a female client who has osteoporosis and a new prescription for raloxifene. What should the nurse assess prior to initiating therapy?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Pregnancy status. Raloxifene is a pregnancy category X drug, which means it can cause serious birth defects. Therefore, it is crucial for the nurse to assess the client's pregnancy status before initiating therapy. Choice B, bone density, while important in osteoporosis management, is not a specific concern related to initiating raloxifene therapy. Choice C, calcium levels, and choice D, blood pressure, are not directly related to the initiation of raloxifene therapy in a female client with osteoporosis.

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