ATI RN
RN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment 2019 B with NGN
1. Which intervention should be prioritized for a client experiencing panic-level anxiety?
- A. Postpone health teaching until anxiety subsides
- B. Encourage participation in group therapy
- C. Monitor vital signs every 5 minutes
- D. Provide reassurance and remain with the client
Correct answer: D
Rationale: During panic-level anxiety, the priority is to provide reassurance and remain with the client. This intervention helps to offer immediate support, comfort, and a sense of safety to the client. Postponing health teaching until anxiety subsides (Choice A) is not appropriate as the client's immediate emotional needs are more critical. Encouraging participation in group therapy (Choice B) may be beneficial in the long term but is not the priority during a panic attack. While monitoring vital signs (Choice C) is important, providing reassurance and support take precedence in managing panic-level anxiety.
2. Which of the following foods is a good source of protein?
- A. Chicken
- B. Tofu
- C. Cheddar cheese
- D. Almonds
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Cheddar cheese is indeed a good source of protein, providing a significant amount per serving. While chicken and tofu are also high in protein, cheddar cheese can be a beneficial source, especially for individuals looking for non-meat options. Almonds, while nutritious, are not as high in protein compared to the other options listed.
3. A nurse is assessing a client who is postoperative. Which of the following findings should the nurse prioritize?
- A. Elevated temperature
- B. Low blood pressure
- C. Decreased urine output
- D. Increased heart rate
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In a postoperative client, decreased urine output is a crucial finding as it can indicate impaired kidney function or inadequate fluid balance. Prioritizing assessment and intervention for decreased urine output is essential to prevent complications like acute kidney injury. Elevated temperature, low blood pressure, and increased heart rate are also important, but they may not be as urgent or directly related to kidney function in a postoperative client.
4. A nurse is preparing to administer enoxaparin subcutaneously to a client. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Inject at a 90-degree angle
- B. Inject at a 45-degree angle
- C. Massage the injection site after administering
- D. Use a longer needle
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is to inject enoxaparin subcutaneously at a 45-degree angle. This angle helps ensure proper delivery of the medication into the subcutaneous tissue. Option A (Inject at a 90-degree angle) is incorrect because subcutaneous injections are usually given at a shallower angle. Option C (Massage the injection site after administering) is incorrect as massaging the site can cause bruising and should generally be avoided. Option D (Use a longer needle) is incorrect as using a longer needle is unnecessary and may increase the risk of injecting the medication too deeply.
5. A nurse manager is presenting to a group of unit nurses the categories regulated under the Controlled Substances Act. Which of the following medications should the nurse include under Schedule II?
- A. Buprenorphine hydrochloride
- B. Hydrocodone bitartrate
- C. Diazepam
- D. Morphine
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Hydrocodone bitartrate. According to the Controlled Substances Act, hydrocodone bitartrate is classified as a Schedule II controlled substance due to its high potential for abuse and addiction. Diazepam (Choice C) and morphine (Choice D) are classified as Schedule IV and Schedule II controlled substances, respectively. Buprenorphine hydrochloride (Choice A) is classified as a Schedule III controlled substance. Therefore, hydrocodone bitartrate should be included under Schedule II medications when discussing the categories regulated under the Controlled Substances Act.
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