Nursing Elites

1. Which intervention is most effective in preventing deep vein thrombosis (DVT) in a postoperative patient?

• A. Encourage the patient to drink plenty of fluids.
• B. Encourage early ambulation and leg exercises.
• C. Administer anticoagulants as prescribed.
• D. Apply compression stockings to the patient's legs.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The most effective intervention in preventing deep vein thrombosis (DVT) in a postoperative patient is to encourage early ambulation and leg exercises. Early ambulation helps promote circulation, preventing stasis and reducing the risk of blood clot formation. Encouraging the patient to drink plenty of fluids (choice A) is important for overall health but is not the most effective intervention for preventing DVT. Administering anticoagulants (choice C) is a valuable intervention in some cases, but it may not be suitable for all postoperative patients. Applying compression stockings (choice D) can help prevent DVT but is generally not as effective as early ambulation and leg exercises in postoperative patients.

2. A nurse is assessing a client who has heart failure and is taking digoxin. The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following manifestations as an indication of digoxin toxicity to report to the provider?

• A. Diarrhea
• B. Vomiting
• C. Ringing in ears
• D. Dizziness

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Vomiting. Vomiting is a common sign of digoxin toxicity and should be reported to the healthcare provider. Diarrhea (Choice A) is a more common side effect of digoxin but not typically associated with toxicity. Ringing in the ears (Choice C) is a potential sign of toxicity; however, vomiting is a more immediate concern. Dizziness (Choice D) can occur with digoxin use but is not a specific indicator of toxicity.

3. A nurse is monitoring an older adult female client who had a myocardial infarction (MI) for the development of an acute kidney injury (AKI). Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as indicating an increased risk of AKI?

• A. Magnesium 2.0 mEq/L
• B. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) 20 mg/dL
• C. Serum Osmolality 290 mOsm/kg H2O
• D. Serum creatinine 1.8 mg/dL

Correct answer: D

Rationale: An elevated serum creatinine level (1.8 mg/dL) is a significant indicator of potential kidney impairment. In acute kidney injury (AKI), serum creatinine levels rise due to decreased kidney function, reflecting the kidneys' inability to effectively filter waste from the blood. Magnesium level, BUN, and serum osmolality are not direct indicators of kidney function or risk of AKI. Magnesium levels are more related to electrolyte balance, BUN can be affected by factors other than kidney function, and serum osmolality reflects the concentration of solutes in the blood, not specifically kidney function.

4. A nurse is preparing to administer medications to four clients. The nurse should administer medications to which client first?

• A. A client who has pneumonia and a WBC count of 11,500/mm3 prescribed piperacillin
• B. A client who has renal failure and a serum potassium of 5.8 mEq/L prescribed sodium polystyrene sulfonate
• C. A client who is post-coronary artery bypass graft (CABG) prescribed atorvastatin
• D. A client who has anemia and a hemoglobin level of 11g/dL prescribed epoetin alfa

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. The client with renal failure and high potassium levels requires immediate attention because hyperkalemia can lead to life-threatening cardiac complications. Administering sodium polystyrene sulfonate helps lower the potassium levels. Choice A, the client with pneumonia and a high WBC count, although important, does not present an immediate life-threatening condition. Choice C, the post-CABG client prescribed atorvastatin, and Choice D, the client with anemia and a hemoglobin level of 11g/dL prescribed epoetin alfa, do not require immediate intervention compared to managing hyperkalemia in a client with renal failure.

5. A nurse is preparing to measure a client's level of oxygen saturation and observes edema of both hands and thickened toenails. The nurse should apply the pulse oximeter probe to which of the following locations?

• A. Finger
• B. Earlobe
• C. Toe
• D. Skin fold

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a client has edema of both hands and thickened toenails, these conditions can impede accurate readings from the finger and toe locations. The earlobe is the best alternative site for the pulse oximeter probe in this scenario. Placing the probe on the earlobe will help ensure a more accurate measurement of oxygen saturation despite the issues with the hands and toenails. Therefore, the correct answer is to apply the pulse oximeter probe to the earlobe. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because of the potential limitations presented by the edema and thickened toenails.

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