which intervention is most effective in preventing deep vein thrombosis dvt in a postoperative patient
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Capstone Comprehensive Assessment B

1. Which intervention is most effective in preventing deep vein thrombosis (DVT) in a postoperative patient?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The most effective intervention in preventing deep vein thrombosis (DVT) in a postoperative patient is to encourage early ambulation and leg exercises. Early ambulation helps promote circulation, preventing stasis and reducing the risk of blood clot formation. Encouraging the patient to drink plenty of fluids (choice A) is important for overall health but is not the most effective intervention for preventing DVT. Administering anticoagulants (choice C) is a valuable intervention in some cases, but it may not be suitable for all postoperative patients. Applying compression stockings (choice D) can help prevent DVT but is generally not as effective as early ambulation and leg exercises in postoperative patients.

2. Which nursing action will best help a patient with diabetes manage their condition?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Teach the patient how to administer insulin. This action is crucial in promoting self-management and control of diabetes. By educating the patient on administering insulin, they can actively participate in their treatment plan. Monitoring blood sugar levels (choice A) is important but doesn't empower the patient to take direct action. Encouraging a diabetic meal plan (choice B) is beneficial but may not directly address the need for insulin administration. Teaching about the complications of diabetes (choice D) is essential but may not be as immediately impactful as teaching insulin administration for day-to-day management.

3. A nurse manager is presenting to a group of unit nurses the categories regulated under the Controlled Substances Act. Which of the following medications should the nurse include under Schedule II?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Hydrocodone bitartrate. According to the Controlled Substances Act, hydrocodone bitartrate is classified as a Schedule II controlled substance due to its high potential for abuse and addiction. Diazepam (Choice C) and morphine (Choice D) are classified as Schedule IV and Schedule II controlled substances, respectively. Buprenorphine hydrochloride (Choice A) is classified as a Schedule III controlled substance. Therefore, hydrocodone bitartrate should be included under Schedule II medications when discussing the categories regulated under the Controlled Substances Act.

4. A nurse is teaching a female client who is experiencing alcohol withdrawal about chlordiazepoxide. Which of the following information should the nurse include in the teaching?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Pregnancy can complicate alcohol withdrawal treatment, and the provider should be notified.

5. A nurse is caring for a female client who has osteoporosis and a new prescription for raloxifene. What should the nurse assess prior to initiating therapy?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Pregnancy status. Raloxifene is a pregnancy category X drug, which means it can cause serious birth defects. Therefore, it is crucial for the nurse to assess the client's pregnancy status before initiating therapy. Choice B, bone density, while important in osteoporosis management, is not a specific concern related to initiating raloxifene therapy. Choice C, calcium levels, and choice D, blood pressure, are not directly related to the initiation of raloxifene therapy in a female client with osteoporosis.

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