which intervention is most effective for managing a patient with constipation
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

RN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment 2019 A with NGN

1. Which intervention is most effective for managing a patient with constipation?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The most effective intervention for managing constipation in a patient is to administer a stool softener as prescribed. Stool softeners help relieve constipation by making the stool easier to pass, especially in postoperative patients. Increasing fluid intake can be beneficial but may not address the underlying cause of constipation. While a high-fiber diet is important for bowel health, it may not provide immediate relief for constipation. Teaching a patient to perform Valsalva maneuvers is not recommended for managing constipation as it can lead to adverse effects like increasing intra-abdominal pressure.

2. A healthcare provider is providing teaching for a patient with a prescription for oral metronidazole, what is the priority teaching point?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to 'Report a rash.' Metronidazole can cause severe adverse reactions like Stevens-Johnson syndrome, a life-threatening rash. It is crucial to educate the patient to report any rash immediately to prevent serious complications. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because while they may be relevant to consider during metronidazole therapy, they are not the priority teaching point. Headaches can occur but are not as serious as a rash; avoiding sunlight is more related to doxycycline, not metronidazole; and taking with meals is a general instruction for some medications but not the priority teaching point for metronidazole.

3. A nurse is preparing to administer furosemide 40 mg IV. Available is furosemide 10 mg/1 mL. How many mL should the nurse administer per dose?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: To calculate the mL needed, divide the total dose by the dose per mL. In this case, 40 mg divided by 10 mg/mL equals 4 mL. Therefore, the nurse should administer 4 mL per dose. Choice A, 2 mL, is incorrect because it would only deliver 20 mg of furosemide, which is half the required dose. Choices B and D are also incorrect as they do not provide the accurate amount needed to achieve the 40 mg dosage.

4. A healthcare professional is assessing a client 15 minutes after administering morphine sulfate 2 mg via IV push. The healthcare professional should identify which of the following findings as an adverse effect of the medication?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A respiratory rate of 8/min is a significant adverse effect of morphine that indicates respiratory depression, which requires immediate intervention to prevent further complications. The client may not be effectively ventilating, leading to hypoxia and respiratory acidosis. Option A is less concerning as being drowsy but responsive is a common side effect of morphine. Option B indicates decreased oxygen saturation, which is also a concern but not as severe as respiratory depression. Option D is important but not as critical as the potential respiratory compromise indicated by the low respiratory rate.

5. A nurse on a medical unit is preparing to discharge a client to home. Which of the following actions should the nurse take as part of the medication reconciliation process?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct action in the medication reconciliation process is to compare prescriptions with the client’s medications. This step ensures that there are no conflicting medications prescribed, reducing the risk of adverse drug interactions. Discontinuing current medications or writing new prescriptions without comparing them can lead to errors and potential harm. Asking the client to decide is not appropriate in this context as it is the nurse's responsibility to ensure medication safety based on professional judgment and knowledge.

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