ATI RN
RN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment 2019 A with NGN
1. Which intervention is most effective for managing a patient with constipation?
- A. Increase the patient's fluid intake.
- B. Administer a stool softener as prescribed.
- C. Provide the patient with a high-fiber diet.
- D. Teach the patient to perform Valsalva maneuvers.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The most effective intervention for managing constipation in a patient is to administer a stool softener as prescribed. Stool softeners help relieve constipation by making the stool easier to pass, especially in postoperative patients. Increasing fluid intake can be beneficial but may not address the underlying cause of constipation. While a high-fiber diet is important for bowel health, it may not provide immediate relief for constipation. Teaching a patient to perform Valsalva maneuvers is not recommended for managing constipation as it can lead to adverse effects like increasing intra-abdominal pressure.
2. A client just had a flexible bronchoscopy. Which of the following nursing actions is appropriate?
- A. Irrigate the client's throat every 4 hours
- B. Withhold food and liquids until the client's gag reflex returns
- C. Suction the client's oropharynx frequently
- D. Have the client refrain from talking for 24 hours
Correct answer: B
Rationale: After a flexible bronchoscopy, it is essential to withhold food and liquids until the client's gag reflex returns. This precaution helps prevent aspiration, as the gag reflex protects the airway from foreign material. Irrigating the client's throat every 4 hours (Choice A) is unnecessary and may increase the risk of aspiration. Suctioning the client's oropharynx frequently (Choice C) can cause trauma and is not indicated unless there is a specific medical reason for it. Having the client refrain from talking for 24 hours (Choice D) is not necessary after a flexible bronchoscopy.
3. A client with a history of seizures is admitted for monitoring. What should the nurse prioritize?
- A. Ensure the client is on seizure precautions.
- B. Educate the client about seizure triggers.
- C. Monitor for signs of an impending seizure.
- D. Initiate IV access for anti-seizure medication.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to ensure the client is on seizure precautions. This is crucial in preventing injury during a seizure episode. While educating the client about seizure triggers (choice B) is important for long-term management, it is not the priority when the client is admitted for monitoring. Monitoring for signs of an impending seizure (choice C) is essential but does not address immediate safety concerns. Initiating IV access for anti-seizure medication (choice D) is not the priority unless a seizure occurs and medical intervention is needed.
4. A healthcare provider is reviewing the medical record of a client who has a new prescription for clozapine. Which of the following findings indicates a contraindication to clozapine?
- A. Fasting blood glucose of 120 mg/dL
- B. Asthma
- C. Hypertension
- D. WBC count of 3,300/mm3
Correct answer: D
Rationale: A low WBC count (3,300/mm3) is a contraindication to clozapine because this medication can cause severe neutropenia. Neutropenia is a significant reduction in white blood cell count, increasing the risk of infections. Elevated fasting blood glucose, asthma, and hypertension are not direct contraindications to clozapine.
5. A nurse manager on an acute care unit is preparing a staff presentation about promoting cost-effective care. Which of the following strategies should the nurse plan to include in the presentation?
- A. Change IV solution bags every 36 hr.
- B. Avoid the delegation of hygiene care to assistive personnel (AP)
- C. Wear sterile gloves when removing urinary retention catheters.
- D. Educate staff about the correct use of personal protective equipment (PPE) for isolation precautions
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Teaching staff proper use of PPE helps reduce the spread of infections and promotes cost-effective care.
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