ATI RN
ATI Capstone Comprehensive Assessment B
1. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer an intravenous (IV) medication. What action should the healthcare professional take to ensure patient safety?
- A. Ensure the medication is administered at the correct time.
- B. Verify the patient's identification using two identifiers.
- C. Prepare the medication at the healthcare professional's station.
- D. Ensure the medication is administered within 30 minutes of the scheduled time.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Verifying the patient's identity using two identifiers is crucial to ensure the right patient receives the right medication. This process helps prevent medication errors by confirming the patient's identity through at least two unique identifiers, such as name, date of birth, or medical record number. Choice A is not directly related to ensuring patient safety during medication administration. Choice C is incorrect as medications should be prepared in a sterile environment, not just at the healthcare professional's station. Choice D is not a safe practice as medications should be administered at the scheduled time to maintain therapeutic effectiveness.
2. Which intervention is most effective for managing a patient with constipation?
- A. Increase the patient's fluid intake.
- B. Administer a stool softener as prescribed.
- C. Provide the patient with a high-fiber diet.
- D. Teach the patient to perform Valsalva maneuvers.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The most effective intervention for managing constipation in a patient is to administer a stool softener as prescribed. Stool softeners help relieve constipation by making the stool easier to pass, especially in postoperative patients. Increasing fluid intake can be beneficial but may not address the underlying cause of constipation. While a high-fiber diet is important for bowel health, it may not provide immediate relief for constipation. Teaching a patient to perform Valsalva maneuvers is not recommended for managing constipation as it can lead to adverse effects like increasing intra-abdominal pressure.
3. A healthcare provider is providing teaching for a patient with a prescription for oral metronidazole, what is the priority teaching point?
- A. Report headaches
- B. Report a rash
- C. Avoid sunlight
- D. Take with meals
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is to 'Report a rash.' Metronidazole can cause severe adverse reactions like Stevens-Johnson syndrome, a life-threatening rash. It is crucial to educate the patient to report any rash immediately to prevent serious complications. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because while they may be relevant to consider during metronidazole therapy, they are not the priority teaching point. Headaches can occur but are not as serious as a rash; avoiding sunlight is more related to doxycycline, not metronidazole; and taking with meals is a general instruction for some medications but not the priority teaching point for metronidazole.
4. A home health nurse is teaching about chest physiotherapy (CPT) treatments to a client with COPD. Which of the following client statements should the nurse identify as an indication that the teaching has been understood?
- A. My coughing will decrease during CPT treatments.
- B. CPT treatments will decrease my respiratory infections.
- C. I will perform postural drainage after eating meals.
- D. CPT treatments will help cure my COPD.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because chest physiotherapy (CPT) helps reduce respiratory infections by loosening mucus in the lungs. Choice A is incorrect because coughing may temporarily increase during CPT treatments as mucus is being cleared. Choice C is incorrect because postural drainage is typically performed before meals. Choice D is incorrect because while CPT can help manage symptoms and improve lung function in COPD, it does not cure the disease.
5. A nurse is monitoring an older adult female client who had a myocardial infarction (MI) for the development of an acute kidney injury (AKI). Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as indicating an increased risk of AKI?
- A. Magnesium 2.0 mEq/L
- B. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) 20 mg/dL
- C. Serum Osmolality 290 mOsm/kg H2O
- D. Serum creatinine 1.8 mg/dL
Correct answer: D
Rationale: An elevated serum creatinine level (1.8 mg/dL) is a significant indicator of potential kidney impairment. In acute kidney injury (AKI), serum creatinine levels rise due to decreased kidney function, reflecting the kidneys' inability to effectively filter waste from the blood. Magnesium level, BUN, and serum osmolality are not direct indicators of kidney function or risk of AKI. Magnesium levels are more related to electrolyte balance, BUN can be affected by factors other than kidney function, and serum osmolality reflects the concentration of solutes in the blood, not specifically kidney function.
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