ATI RN
RN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment 2019 B with NGN
1. A nurse is caring for a client who is postoperative and refuses to use an incentive spirometer following major abdominal surgery. Which of the following actions is the nurse's priority?
- A. Demonstrate how to use the spirometer
- B. Set a realistic postoperative goal
- C. Determine the reasons why the client is refusing
- D. Request that a respiratory therapist discuss the technique
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The priority action for the nurse is to determine the reasons why the client is refusing to use the incentive spirometer. By understanding the client's concerns or issues, the nurse can address them effectively, provide education or support, and encourage the client to comply with the necessary postoperative care. This approach fosters a patient-centered care environment. Demonstrating how to use the spirometer (Choice A) may be important but is not the priority at this moment. Setting a realistic postoperative goal (Choice B) is relevant but not as immediate as understanding the client's refusal. Requesting a respiratory therapist (Choice D) can be considered later if needed, but the nurse's initial focus should be on understanding the client's perspective.
2. What is the priority when assessing a patient for possible deep vein thrombosis (DVT)?
- A. Dorsiflex the foot and check for pain.
- B. Measure the calf circumference of both legs.
- C. Check the skin for signs of redness.
- D. Perform a Doppler ultrasound scan.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is to measure the calf circumference of both legs when assessing a patient for possible DVT. An increase in calf circumference in one leg can indicate the presence of a DVT. Option A is incorrect because dorsiflexing the foot and checking for pain are not primary assessments for DVT. Option C is incorrect as redness of the skin may not always be present in cases of DVT. Option D is incorrect as performing a Doppler ultrasound scan is usually done after clinical assessment and to confirm the diagnosis, not as the initial priority assessment.
3. A nurse is monitoring an older adult female client who had a myocardial infarction (MI) for the development of an acute kidney injury (AKI). Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as indicating an increased risk of AKI?
- A. Magnesium 2.0 mEq/L
- B. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) 20 mg/dL
- C. Serum Osmolality 290 mOsm/kg H2O
- D. Serum creatinine 1.8 mg/dL
Correct answer: D
Rationale: An elevated serum creatinine level (1.8 mg/dL) is a significant indicator of potential kidney impairment. In acute kidney injury (AKI), serum creatinine levels rise due to decreased kidney function, reflecting the kidneys' inability to effectively filter waste from the blood. Magnesium level, BUN, and serum osmolality are not direct indicators of kidney function or risk of AKI. Magnesium levels are more related to electrolyte balance, BUN can be affected by factors other than kidney function, and serum osmolality reflects the concentration of solutes in the blood, not specifically kidney function.
4. A patient recovering from a stroke has difficulty swallowing. Which action should the nurse prioritize?
- A. Begin feeding the patient soft solids.
- B. Place the patient on NPO (nothing by mouth) status.
- C. Provide ice chips to help soothe the throat.
- D. Start the patient on a clear liquid diet.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is to place the patient on NPO (nothing by mouth) status. Patients recovering from a stroke with difficulty swallowing are at high risk for aspiration, which can lead to serious complications like aspiration pneumonia. Therefore, the priority is to keep the patient on NPO until a thorough evaluation by a healthcare provider is completed. Choice A is incorrect as feeding the patient soft solids can increase the risk of aspiration. Choice C is incorrect as providing ice chips may further compromise swallowing safety. Choice D is incorrect as starting the patient on a clear liquid diet can also increase the risk of aspiration in this scenario.
5. A nurse is assessing a client following a head injury and a brief loss of consciousness. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score of 12
- B. Edematous bruise on the forehead
- C. Small drops of clear fluid in the left ear
- D. Pupils are 4 mm and reactive to light
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Clear fluid draining from the ear may indicate a cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) leak, which is a serious complication following a head injury. Reporting this finding is crucial as it may require immediate medical intervention to prevent further complications. Choices A, B, and D are not as concerning as a CSF leak. A GCS score of 12 is relatively high, indicating a mild level of consciousness alteration. An edematous bruise on the forehead is a common physical finding after a head injury. Pupils that are 4 mm and reactive to light suggest normal pupillary function.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
ATI RN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 30 days access
ATI RN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 30 days access