Nursing Elites

1. Which electrolyte imbalance is most concerning in a patient on furosemide?

• A. Hyperkalemia
• B. Hypokalemia
• C. Hyponatremia
• D. Hypercalcemia

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is Hypokalemia. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can lead to potassium depletion by increasing its excretion in the urine. Hypokalemia is a common and concerning side effect of furosemide therapy. Hyperkalemia (Choice A) is less likely as furosemide tends to lower potassium levels. Hyponatremia (Choice C) is more commonly seen with thiazide diuretics. Hypercalcemia (Choice D) is not directly associated with furosemide use.

2. A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving radiation therapy. Which of the following side effects should the nurse monitor for?

• A. Fatigue
• B. Hair loss
• C. Nausea
• D. Dry mouth

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, dry mouth. Dry mouth is a common side effect of radiation therapy due to damage to the salivary glands. It is essential for the nurse to monitor for this condition as it can lead to oral health issues and discomfort. Fatigue (choice A) is a common side effect of radiation therapy, but in this case, dry mouth is a more specific side effect to monitor for. Hair loss (choice B) is more commonly associated with chemotherapy rather than radiation therapy. Nausea (choice C) is also a common side effect of radiation therapy, but dry mouth is a more direct effect of the treatment that the nurse should focus on monitoring.

3. What is the priority nursing intervention for a patient experiencing an acute asthma attack?

• A. Administer bronchodilators
• B. Monitor oxygen saturation
• C. Provide supplemental oxygen
• D. Start IV fluids

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to administer bronchodilators. In an acute asthma attack, the priority is to open the airways and improve airflow. Bronchodilators like albuterol are crucial in providing immediate relief to the patient. Monitoring oxygen saturation (choice B) is important but administering bronchodilators takes precedence in managing the acute attack. Providing supplemental oxygen (choice C) may be necessary but addressing the airway obstruction with bronchodilators is the priority. Starting IV fluids (choice D) is not the priority in an acute asthma attack unless specifically indicated for other reasons such as dehydration.

4. A nurse is reviewing the laboratory results of a client who has hypocalcemia. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

• A. Positive Trousseau's sign
• B. Increased deep tendon reflexes
• C. Hyperactive bowel sounds
• D. Weak, thready pulse

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A positive Trousseau's sign is a key finding in clients with hypocalcemia, indicating neuromuscular irritability. The other choices are not typically associated with hypocalcemia. Increased deep tendon reflexes are more indicative of hypercalcemia. Hyperactive bowel sounds can be seen in hyperactive bowel conditions or diarrhea, not specifically related to hypocalcemia. A weak, thready pulse may indicate cardiovascular issues, such as dehydration, but it is not a typical finding in hypocalcemia.

5. Which lab value should be monitored in patients receiving heparin therapy?

• A. Monitor aPTT
• B. Monitor INR
• C. Monitor platelet count
• D. Monitor sodium levels

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor aPTT in patients receiving heparin therapy. Activated Partial Thromboplastin Time (aPTT) is crucial to assess the therapeutic effectiveness of heparin and to prevent bleeding complications. Monitoring INR (Choice B) is more relevant for patients on warfarin therapy, not heparin. Platelet count (Choice C) monitoring is essential for detecting heparin-induced thrombocytopenia rather than assessing heparin therapy itself. Monitoring sodium levels (Choice D) is not directly related to heparin therapy monitoring.

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