ATI RN
ATI RN Exit Exam Test Bank
1. Which electrolyte imbalance is most concerning in a patient on furosemide?
- A. Hyperkalemia
- B. Hypokalemia
- C. Hyponatremia
- D. Hypercalcemia
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is Hypokalemia. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can lead to potassium depletion by increasing its excretion in the urine. Hypokalemia is a common and concerning side effect of furosemide therapy. Hyperkalemia (Choice A) is less likely as furosemide tends to lower potassium levels. Hyponatremia (Choice C) is more commonly seen with thiazide diuretics. Hypercalcemia (Choice D) is not directly associated with furosemide use.
2. Which electrolyte imbalance is most common in patients receiving furosemide?
- A. Hypokalemia
- B. Hypercalcemia
- C. Hyponatremia
- D. Hyperkalemia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A, Hypokalemia. Furosemide, a loop diuretic, commonly leads to potassium loss in the urine, causing hypokalemia. This electrolyte imbalance should be closely monitored in patients taking furosemide. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because hypercalcemia, hyponatremia, and hyperkalemia are not typically associated with furosemide use.
3. A nurse is assessing a client who has right-sided heart failure. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
- A. Weight loss.
- B. Bradycardia.
- C. Peripheral edema.
- D. Dry cough.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Peripheral edema. In right-sided heart failure, the heart struggles to pump blood efficiently, leading to fluid backup in the body. This fluid retention commonly manifests as peripheral edema, causing swelling in the legs, ankles, and feet. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Weight loss is not typically associated with right-sided heart failure; bradycardia (slow heart rate) is more commonly seen in conditions like hypothyroidism or athletes, not specifically in right-sided heart failure; and a dry cough is more commonly associated with conditions like pneumonia or bronchitis, not typically with right-sided heart failure.
4. A client in her second trimester of pregnancy is being taught by a nurse about managing nausea and vomiting. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?
- A. ''I will drink a glass of orange juice before I get out of bed.''
- B. ''I will eat small, frequent meals throughout the day.''
- C. ''I will take 1 g of acetaminophen every 6 hours.''
- D. ''I will avoid foods that have a strong odor.''
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Eating small, frequent meals is a recommended strategy to manage nausea and vomiting during pregnancy. This approach helps prevent an empty stomach, which can worsen symptoms. Option A is not as effective as eating small, frequent meals. Option C is unrelated to managing nausea and vomiting, and acetaminophen should only be taken as directed by a healthcare provider. Option D may help reduce nausea in some cases, but the most appropriate response related to managing symptoms is to eat small, frequent meals.
5. A nurse is reviewing the laboratory values of a client who has diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. Potassium 4.2 mEq/L
- B. Glucose 250 mg/dL
- C. Bicarbonate 20 mEq/L
- D. Sodium 135 mEq/L
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. A glucose level of 250 mg/dL indicates hyperglycemia, which is expected in DKA. However, in the context of DKA management, persistent or worsening hyperglycemia can indicate inadequate treatment response or complications, necessitating further monitoring and intervention. Potassium levels are crucial in DKA due to the risk of hypokalemia, but a level of 4.2 mEq/L is within the normal range. Bicarbonate levels are typically low in DKA, making a value of 20 mEq/L consistent with the condition. Sodium levels of 135 mEq/L are also within normal limits and not a priority for immediate reporting in the context of DKA.
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