ATI RN
ATI RN Exit Exam Test Bank
1. Which electrolyte imbalance is most concerning in a patient on furosemide?
- A. Hyperkalemia
- B. Hypokalemia
- C. Hyponatremia
- D. Hypercalcemia
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is Hypokalemia. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can lead to potassium depletion by increasing its excretion in the urine. Hypokalemia is a common and concerning side effect of furosemide therapy. Hyperkalemia (Choice A) is less likely as furosemide tends to lower potassium levels. Hyponatremia (Choice C) is more commonly seen with thiazide diuretics. Hypercalcemia (Choice D) is not directly associated with furosemide use.
2. How should a healthcare professional handle a patient who is refusing to take a prescribed medication?
- A. Immediately give the medication
- B. Assess the reasons for refusal
- C. Document refusal
- D. Explore alternative treatment options
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Assessing the reasons for refusal is crucial as it allows the healthcare professional to understand the patient's concerns, which can range from fear of side effects to cost issues. By identifying the underlying reasons, the healthcare professional can tailor their approach to address these specific concerns, potentially improving medication adherence. Giving the medication immediately (Choice A) without understanding the patient's reasons for refusal can lead to further non-compliance. While documenting refusal (Choice C) is important for legal and tracking purposes, it does not directly address the patient's concerns. Exploring alternative treatment options (Choice D) may be considered after understanding the reasons for refusal, but it is not the initial step in managing medication refusal.
3. A nurse is reviewing the medical history of a client who has angina. What risk factor should the nurse identify?
- A. Hyperlipidemia.
- B. COPD.
- C. Seizure disorder.
- D. Hyponatremia.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A, Hyperlipidemia. Hyperlipidemia, characterized by high levels of lipids in the blood, is a well-established risk factor for the development of angina. Elevated lipid levels can lead to atherosclerosis, which narrows the arteries supplying the heart muscle with oxygenated blood, increasing the risk of angina. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because COPD, seizure disorder, and hyponatremia are not directly associated with an increased risk of angina.
4. A client has a new prescription for levothyroxine. Which of the following findings should the nurse monitor for as a potential adverse effect of the medication?
- A. Increased heart rate.
- B. Weight loss.
- C. Hyperthermia.
- D. Decreased deep-tendon reflexes.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Corrected Rationale: An increased heart rate is a common adverse effect of levothyroxine due to its role in boosting metabolism. Choice B, weight loss, is actually a therapeutic effect of levothyroxine as it helps in managing hypothyroidism by increasing the metabolic rate. Hyperthermia (Choice C) is not a typical adverse effect of levothyroxine. Decreased deep-tendon reflexes (Choice D) are not associated with levothyroxine use.
5. A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client who has a new prescription for enalapril. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. Serum potassium 4.0 mEq/L
- B. Sodium 138 mEq/L
- C. Serum creatinine 3.8 mg/dL
- D. Hemoglobin 13 g/dL
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. An elevated serum creatinine level can indicate impaired kidney function, which is crucial to report before administering enalapril. Enalapril, an ACE inhibitor, can affect kidney function, especially in patients with pre-existing renal impairment. Choices A, B, and D are within normal ranges and do not directly impact the initiation of enalapril therapy.
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