ATI RN
ATI RN Exit Exam Test Bank
1. Which electrolyte imbalance is most concerning in a patient on furosemide?
- A. Hyperkalemia
- B. Hypokalemia
- C. Hyponatremia
- D. Hypercalcemia
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is Hypokalemia. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can lead to potassium depletion by increasing its excretion in the urine. Hypokalemia is a common and concerning side effect of furosemide therapy. Hyperkalemia (Choice A) is less likely as furosemide tends to lower potassium levels. Hyponatremia (Choice C) is more commonly seen with thiazide diuretics. Hypercalcemia (Choice D) is not directly associated with furosemide use.
2. A client with a history of depression and experiencing a situational crisis is being assessed by a nurse. What action should the nurse take first?
- A. Notify the client's support system.
- B. Help the client identify personal strengths.
- C. Confirm the client's perception of the event.
- D. Teach the client relaxation techniques.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: When a client with a history of depression is experiencing a situational crisis, the first action the nurse should take is to notify the client's support system. This is crucial as the client may require immediate assistance and support. While helping the client identify personal strengths and confirming the client's perception of the event are important aspects of the assessment and intervention process, notifying the support system takes priority in ensuring the client's safety and well-being. Teaching relaxation techniques may be beneficial but addressing the client's immediate crisis through support system notification is the most appropriate initial action.
3. A nurse is assessing a client who has a history of seizure disorder and is receiving phenytoin. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as an adverse effect of the medication?
- A. Bradycardia.
- B. Ataxia.
- C. Tachycardia.
- D. Insomnia.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Ataxia. Ataxia, which refers to uncoordinated movements, is a common adverse effect of phenytoin, a medication used to manage seizure disorders. Bradycardia (Choice A) is not typically associated with phenytoin; instead, it may cause tachycardia (Choice C) as a side effect. Insomnia (Choice D) is not a common adverse effect of phenytoin.
4. A nurse is assessing a client who is receiving enteral feedings through a nasogastric tube. Which of the following findings requires immediate intervention?
- A. Aspirating 100 mL of gastric residual
- B. Gastric pH of 4
- C. Auscultating crackles in the lung bases
- D. Checking residual every 6 hours
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Auscultating crackles in the lung bases indicates fluid in the lungs, which can be a sign of aspiration pneumonia or pulmonary edema and requires immediate intervention to prevent respiratory distress. Aspirating 100 mL of gastric residual is within the acceptable range and does not require immediate intervention. A gastric pH of 4 is normal for gastric contents. Checking residual every 6 hours is a routine nursing intervention and does not indicate an urgent issue like pulmonary complications.
5. A client with hypertension is being taught about dietary modifications by a nurse. Which of the following food choices by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?
- A. I will choose processed meats for meals.
- B. I will eat canned vegetables to reduce my sodium intake.
- C. I will eat fresh fruits and vegetables each day.
- D. I will increase my intake of canned soups.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Choosing fresh fruits and vegetables is a healthy choice for someone with hypertension as they are low in sodium and high in nutrients. Processed meats (A) are high in sodium and unhealthy fats, which can worsen hypertension. Canned vegetables (B) often have added sodium, so fresh is a better choice. Canned soups (D) are typically high in sodium and should be limited in a hypertensive diet.
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