Nursing Elites

1. Which electrolyte imbalance is most concerning in a patient on furosemide?

• A. Hyperkalemia
• B. Hypokalemia
• C. Hyponatremia
• D. Hypercalcemia

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is Hypokalemia. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can lead to potassium depletion by increasing its excretion in the urine. Hypokalemia is a common and concerning side effect of furosemide therapy. Hyperkalemia (Choice A) is less likely as furosemide tends to lower potassium levels. Hyponatremia (Choice C) is more commonly seen with thiazide diuretics. Hypercalcemia (Choice D) is not directly associated with furosemide use.

2. A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client who is scheduled for surgery. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Client reports taking warfarin
• B. Client has a history of hypertension
• C. Client ate a light breakfast 2 hours prior
• D. Client reports a history of smoking 10 cigarettes a day

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Warfarin is an anticoagulant that increases the risk of bleeding during surgery. It is crucial for the provider to be informed about the client taking warfarin to adjust the treatment plan accordingly. Choices B, C, and D are not as critical to report for surgical planning. A history of hypertension (B) is important but may not require immediate intervention for surgery. Eating a light breakfast 2 hours prior (C) is a normal preoperative instruction. Smoking history (D) is relevant for overall health assessment but is not as urgent as the use of warfarin before surgery.

3. A nurse in the PACU is caring for a client who reports nausea. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?

• A. Turn the client on their side.
• B. Administer an analgesic.
• C. Administer antiemetic.
• D. Monitor the client's vital signs.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action the nurse should take first when a client reports nausea in the PACU is to turn the client on their side. This action helps prevent aspiration in a client with nausea, reducing the risk of choking or inhaling vomitus. Administering an analgesic (Choice B) is not the priority in this situation unless pain is the primary cause of nausea. While administering an antiemetic (Choice C) can help relieve nausea, it is not the initial action to prevent aspiration. Monitoring the client's vital signs (Choice D) is important but should come after ensuring the client's safety by turning them on their side.

4. Which electrolyte imbalance should be closely monitored in patients on furosemide?

• A. Hypokalemia
• B. Hyponatremia
• C. Hyperkalemia
• D. Hypercalcemia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hypokalemia. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can lead to potassium loss in the body, resulting in hypokalemia. Monitoring potassium levels is crucial in patients on furosemide to prevent complications such as cardiac arrhythmias and muscle weakness. Choice B, hyponatremia, is not typically associated with furosemide use. Hyperkalemia (choice C) and hypercalcemia (choice D) are not commonly linked to furosemide therapy; therefore, they are incorrect choices.

5. A nurse is caring for a client who has cirrhosis. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse expect to be decreased?

• A. Bilirubin.
• B. Albumin.
• C. Ammonia.
• D. Prothrombin time.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In clients with cirrhosis, albumin levels are typically decreased due to impaired liver function. Bilirubin levels are often increased in cirrhosis due to the liver's inability to process bilirubin efficiently. Ammonia levels may be elevated in cirrhosis due to impaired ammonia metabolism by the liver. Prothrombin time is usually prolonged in cirrhosis because the liver's ability to synthesize clotting factors is impaired.

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