which electrolyte imbalance is most concerning in a patient on furosemide
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI RN Exit Exam Test Bank

1. Which electrolyte imbalance is most concerning in a patient on furosemide?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is Hypokalemia. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can lead to potassium depletion by increasing its excretion in the urine. Hypokalemia is a common and concerning side effect of furosemide therapy. Hyperkalemia (Choice A) is less likely as furosemide tends to lower potassium levels. Hyponatremia (Choice C) is more commonly seen with thiazide diuretics. Hypercalcemia (Choice D) is not directly associated with furosemide use.

2. A client receiving chemotherapy is being taught about infection prevention by a nurse. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Avoid crowds to reduce the risk of infection.' Clients receiving chemotherapy are immunocompromised, so avoiding crowds can help decrease the likelihood of exposure to infections. Wearing a mask when gardening (choice A) is important but not directly related to infection prevention in the context of chemotherapy. Taking a daily vitamin (choice C) may be beneficial for overall health but is not specifically focused on infection prevention. Increasing intake of high-protein foods (choice D) is essential for nutrition but does not directly address infection prevention.

3. A healthcare provider is assessing a client who has pneumonia. Which of the following findings is the priority for the healthcare provider to report?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A respiratory rate of 26/min is a sign of respiratory distress and should be reported promptly in a client with pneumonia. Rapid breathing can indicate inadequate oxygenation and ventilation, which may lead to respiratory failure. Crackles in the lung bases are common in pneumonia but may not be as urgent as a high respiratory rate. A blood pressure of 100/64 mm Hg is slightly low but may not be immediately life-threatening. A heart rate of 86/min is within the normal range for an adult and is not the most critical finding to report.

4. A nurse is preparing to perform postmortem care for a client. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take when preparing to perform postmortem care is to remove the client's IV lines. This step is essential to help maintain the dignity and appearance of the body. Placing the client's dentures in a labeled container (Choice A) is not a priority during postmortem care as the focus is on the body's preparation. While positioning the body in a semi-fowler's position (Choice C) or lowering the client's head of the bed (Choice D) are common practices for living clients to prevent aspiration, they are not necessary after death. Therefore, the immediate action of removing IV lines is most appropriate in this situation.

5. How should a healthcare professional monitor for infection in a patient with a central line?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Correct answer: A. Checking the central line dressing daily is crucial to monitor for signs of infection around the insertion site. This practice helps in early detection of any changes such as redness, swelling, or discharge, which are indicators of a potential infection. Monitoring for signs of redness (choice B) is limited as redness alone may not always indicate an infection; other symptoms like discharge and tenderness should also be observed. Checking for abnormal breath sounds (choice C) is not directly related to monitoring central line infections. Monitoring temperature (choice D) is important for detecting systemic signs of infection but may not specifically indicate an infection related to the central line site.

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