Nursing Elites

1. Which electrolyte imbalance is most concerning in a patient on furosemide?

• A. Hyperkalemia
• B. Hypokalemia
• C. Hyponatremia
• D. Hypercalcemia

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is Hypokalemia. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can lead to potassium depletion by increasing its excretion in the urine. Hypokalemia is a common and concerning side effect of furosemide therapy. Hyperkalemia (Choice A) is less likely as furosemide tends to lower potassium levels. Hyponatremia (Choice C) is more commonly seen with thiazide diuretics. Hypercalcemia (Choice D) is not directly associated with furosemide use.

2. A client with asthma asks how to use a peak flow meter. Which of the following instructions should the nurse provide?

• A. Use the peak flow meter at the same time each day.
• B. Take a slow, deep breath and blow out as hard as you can.
• C. Keep a log of your peak flow readings.
• D. Perform the test before using any bronchodilators.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the client to perform the peak flow test before using any bronchodilators. This is important because it provides the most accurate baseline measurement of lung function. Choice A is not necessarily crucial for the accuracy of the test. Choice B describes the technique for spirometry, not peak flow meter use. Choice C, while important for tracking trends, is not directly related to the accuracy of the initial measurement.

3. A client is receiving heparin therapy. Which of the following laboratory results indicates the client is receiving an effective dose of heparin?

• A. INR 1.5
• B. aPTT 60 seconds
• C. Platelets 150,000/mm³
• D. Potassium 4.0 mEq/L

Correct answer: B

Rationale: An aPTT of 60 seconds indicates the client is receiving an effective dose of heparin. The activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) measures the time it takes for a clot to form, and a therapeutic range for heparin therapy is usually 1.5 to 2 times the control value, which is around 60-80 seconds. An INR of 1.5 is not related to heparin therapy, as it is commonly used to monitor warfarin therapy. Platelet count and potassium levels are not direct indicators of the effectiveness of heparin therapy.

4. What is the best position for a patient with respiratory distress?

• A. Semi-Fowler's position
• B. Trendelenburg position
• C. Prone position
• D. Supine position

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The best position for a patient with respiratory distress is the Semi-Fowler's position. This position promotes lung expansion and improves oxygenation by allowing the chest to expand more fully. The Trendelenburg position, where the patient's feet are higher than the head, is contraindicated in respiratory distress as it can increase pressure on the diaphragm and compromise breathing. The prone position, lying face down, may be beneficial in certain cases like acute respiratory distress syndrome but is not generally recommended for all patients in respiratory distress. The supine position, lying flat on the back, can worsen respiratory distress by causing the tongue to fall back and obstruct the airway.

5. A nurse is providing teaching to a client who has a new prescription for albuterol. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?

• A. I will use this medication to prevent an asthma attack.
• B. I will use this medication for shortness of breath during an asthma attack.
• C. I will take this medication with my daily vitamins.
• D. I will take this medication at bedtime to prevent an asthma attack.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because albuterol is used to treat shortness of breath during an asthma attack. Choice A is incorrect as albuterol is a rescue medication used during an asthma attack, not for prevention. Choice C is incorrect as albuterol should not be taken with daily vitamins. Choice D is incorrect as albuterol is not typically taken at bedtime for asthma prevention.

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