Nursing Elites

1. Which electrolyte imbalance is most concerning in a patient on furosemide?

• A. Hyperkalemia
• B. Hypokalemia
• C. Hyponatremia
• D. Hypercalcemia

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is Hypokalemia. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can lead to potassium depletion by increasing its excretion in the urine. Hypokalemia is a common and concerning side effect of furosemide therapy. Hyperkalemia (Choice A) is less likely as furosemide tends to lower potassium levels. Hyponatremia (Choice C) is more commonly seen with thiazide diuretics. Hypercalcemia (Choice D) is not directly associated with furosemide use.

2. Which laboratory test is essential for monitoring renal function in a patient with chronic kidney disease?

• A. Monitor BUN and creatinine levels
• B. Check blood glucose levels
• C. Monitor hemoglobin and hematocrit levels
• D. Monitor liver enzymes

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor BUN (Blood Urea Nitrogen) and creatinine levels in a patient with chronic kidney disease. These tests provide crucial information about renal function. Checking blood glucose levels (Choice B) is important for monitoring diabetes, not renal function. Monitoring hemoglobin and hematocrit levels (Choice C) helps assess anemia, not specifically renal function. Monitoring liver enzymes (Choice D) is relevant for assessing liver function, not renal function.

3. A nurse is assessing a client who is experiencing acute alcohol withdrawal. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

• A. Bradycardia
• B. Tachycardia
• C. Hyperthermia
• D. Hypotension

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Tachycardia. In acute alcohol withdrawal, tachycardia is a common finding due to increased sympathetic activity. Bradycardia (Choice A) is less likely in this condition since the sympathetic nervous system is typically overactive. Hyperthermia (Choice C) is not a typical finding in acute alcohol withdrawal. Hypotension (Choice D) is less common compared to tachycardia in this situation.

4. What is the most appropriate intervention for a patient with confusion post-surgery?

• A. Administer oxygen
• B. Reposition the patient
• C. Administer IV fluids
• D. Perform a neurological assessment

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Administering oxygen is the most appropriate intervention for a patient with confusion post-surgery because it helps alleviate confusion caused by potential hypoxia. In a post-surgical setting, confusion can be a sign of decreased oxygen levels in the blood due to various reasons such as respiratory depression, decreased lung function, or other complications. Administering oxygen can quickly address hypoxia, improving oxygenation to the brain and reducing confusion. Repositioning the patient, administering IV fluids, or performing a neurological assessment are not the primary interventions for confusion related to hypoxia post-surgery.

5. A nurse is caring for a client who has a urinary tract infection (UTI) and is prescribed ciprofloxacin. The nurse should instruct the client to monitor for and report which of the following adverse effects?

• A. Tinnitus.
• B. Photosensitivity.
• C. Urinary frequency.
• D. Insomnia.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Photosensitivity. Ciprofloxacin, an antibiotic commonly used to treat UTIs, can cause photosensitivity as an adverse effect. This reaction makes the skin more sensitive to sunlight, potentially leading to severe sunburns or skin damage. It is crucial for the client to be aware of this adverse effect to take precautions and report any signs of photosensitivity promptly. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because tinnitus, urinary frequency, and insomnia are not typically associated with ciprofloxacin use. While urinary frequency might be a symptom of UTI, it is not an adverse effect of the medication itself.

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