which electrolyte imbalance is most concerning in a patient on furosemide
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI RN Exit Exam Test Bank

1. Which electrolyte imbalance is most concerning in a patient on furosemide?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is Hypokalemia. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can lead to potassium depletion by increasing its excretion in the urine. Hypokalemia is a common and concerning side effect of furosemide therapy. Hyperkalemia (Choice A) is less likely as furosemide tends to lower potassium levels. Hyponatremia (Choice C) is more commonly seen with thiazide diuretics. Hypercalcemia (Choice D) is not directly associated with furosemide use.

2. A nurse is caring for a client who is experiencing acute alcohol withdrawal. Which of the following interventions should the nurse implement?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Administering lorazepam is the appropriate intervention for a client experiencing acute alcohol withdrawal. Lorazepam helps reduce agitation and prevent complications during this withdrawal phase. Choice A, providing a low-sodium diet, is not directly related to managing alcohol withdrawal symptoms. Choice C, keeping the client in a supine position, is not necessary and may not address the client's withdrawal symptoms. Choice D, placing the client in restraints, should only be considered if the client is at risk of harming themselves or others, but it is not the primary intervention for managing alcohol withdrawal.

3. A client who has a new prescription for warfarin is being taught about the medication's adverse effects by a nurse. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Black, tarry stools can indicate gastrointestinal bleeding, a serious adverse effect of warfarin that requires immediate medical attention. Option A is incorrect because while bruising is a common side effect of warfarin, it is not limited to the elbows. Option B is incorrect as a red rash is not a typical adverse effect of warfarin. Option C is also incorrect because developing a cough is not a reason to discontinue warfarin unless advised by a healthcare provider.

4. A client who is at 10 weeks of gestation is being taught about nutrition during pregnancy. Which statement by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Increasing folic acid intake is crucial during pregnancy to prevent neural tube defects. Option A is incorrect because calorie requirements during pregnancy vary and are generally higher than 1,200 calories per day. Option C is not specific to pregnancy nutrition teaching, although hydration is important. Option D is incorrect as iron-rich foods are typically recommended during pregnancy to prevent anemia.

5. A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client who has a new prescription for spironolactone. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A serum creatinine level of 3.0 mg/dL indicates impaired kidney function, which is a concern when prescribing spironolactone as it can further affect renal function. Elevated serum creatinine levels may suggest decreased renal clearance of spironolactone, leading to potential toxicity. Potassium, calcium, and magnesium levels are within normal ranges and not directly related to spironolactone therapy. Therefore, the nurse should report the elevated serum creatinine level to the provider for further evaluation and possible dosage adjustment.

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