Nursing Elites

1. Which electrolyte imbalance is a potential side effect of diuretics?

• A. Hyperkalemia
• B. Hypercalcemia
• C. Hypomagnesemia
• D. Hypokalemia

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, Hypokalemia. Diuretics commonly cause hypokalemia due to increased urinary excretion of potassium. Hyperkalemia (Choice A) is the opposite, characterized by high potassium levels and is not typically associated with diuretics. Hypercalcemia (Choice B) is an elevated calcium level, which is not a common side effect of diuretics. Hypomagnesemia (Choice C) is low magnesium levels, which can be a side effect of diuretics, but the most common electrolyte imbalance associated with diuretics is hypokalemia.

2. Which dietary change is most beneficial for a patient with hypertension?

• A. Increased sodium intake
• B. Decreased potassium intake
• C. Increased fiber intake
• D. Increased cholesterol intake

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Increased fiber intake. A diet high in fiber is beneficial for patients with hypertension as it helps lower blood pressure. Increasing fiber intake can aid in managing hypertension by promoting heart health and overall well-being. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Increased sodium intake is not recommended for hypertension as it can elevate blood pressure. Decreasing potassium intake is also not advised as potassium is essential for regulating blood pressure. Lastly, increasing cholesterol intake is detrimental for hypertension as it can contribute to cardiovascular issues and worsen the condition.

3. In assessing the client's chest, which position best shows chest expansion as well as its movements?

• A. Sitting
• B. Prone
• C. Sidelying
• D. Supine

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Sitting. When the client is seated, their chest is in an optimal position for observing the full range of chest expansion during breathing. This position allows for easy visualization of chest movements and expansion as the client breathes in and out, providing a comprehensive assessment of respiratory function. Choice B, Prone, is incorrect as lying face down would not provide a clear view of chest expansion. Choice C, Sidelying, is also incorrect as this position may limit the visibility of chest movements. Choice D, Supine, is not the best position for assessing chest expansion as it may not offer a clear observation of chest movements during breathing.

4. The client diagnosed with acute pancreatitis has developed a pseudocyst that ruptures. Which procedure should the nurse anticipate the HCP ordering?

• A. Paracentesis
• B. Chest tube insertion
• C. Lumbar puncture
• D. Biopsy of the pancreas

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Chest tube insertion. In the context of a pancreatic pseudocyst rupturing, a chest tube may be needed if the pseudocyst extends into the pleural space, leading to a pleural effusion. Choice A, paracentesis, involves the removal of fluid from the abdominal cavity, not the pleural space. Choice C, lumbar puncture, is a procedure performed to collect cerebrospinal fluid from the spinal canal, not relevant in this scenario. Choice D, biopsy of the pancreas, is not indicated in the immediate management of a ruptured pseudocyst.

5. What is the term for the infection of small sacs that protrude from the lumen of the colon?

• A. Diverticulosis
• B. Diverticulitis
• C. Cholelithiasis
• D. Cholecystitis

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Diverticulitis. Diverticulitis specifically refers to the infection or inflammation of diverticula in the colon. Choice A, Diverticulosis, is incorrect as it refers to the condition of having diverticula without inflammation or infection. Choices C and D, Cholelithiasis and Cholecystitis, are unrelated conditions affecting the gallbladder, not the colon.

Similar Questions