Nursing Elites

1. Which electrolyte imbalance is a potential side effect of diuretics?

• A. Hyperkalemia
• B. Hypercalcemia
• C. Hypomagnesemia
• D. Hypokalemia

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, Hypokalemia. Diuretics commonly cause hypokalemia due to increased urinary excretion of potassium. Hyperkalemia (Choice A) is the opposite, characterized by high potassium levels and is not typically associated with diuretics. Hypercalcemia (Choice B) is an elevated calcium level, which is not a common side effect of diuretics. Hypomagnesemia (Choice C) is low magnesium levels, which can be a side effect of diuretics, but the most common electrolyte imbalance associated with diuretics is hypokalemia.

2. Identifying the strengths and weaknesses in the plan of nursing care is part of which of the following steps in determining and fulfilling the nursing care needs of the patient?

• A. Evaluation
• B. Planning
• C. Implementation
• D. Assessment

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Evaluation. Evaluation in nursing care involves assessing the effectiveness of the care plan, identifying strengths, weaknesses, and areas for improvement. This step helps ensure that the patient's needs are being met appropriately. Planning (choice B) involves developing the care plan based on the assessment data. Implementation (choice C) is the step where the care plan is put into action. Assessment (choice D) is the initial step in the nursing process that involves collecting and analyzing data about the patient's health status.

3. The nurse is caring for the client recovering from a percutaneous renal biopsy. Which data indicate that the client is complying with client teaching?

• A. The client lies flat in the supine position for 12 hours
• B. The client continues oral fluids restriction while on bed rest
• C. The client’s family changed the dressing on return to the room
• D. The family activates the patient-controlled analgesia pump

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Lying flat in the supine position for 12 hours after a renal biopsy is essential to prevent bleeding and promote recovery. This position helps apply pressure to the biopsy site, reducing the risk of bleeding. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because continuing oral fluids restriction, changing the dressing, and activating the patient-controlled analgesia pump do not directly indicate compliance with the crucial post-biopsy teaching of maintaining the supine position.

4. Clinitest is used in testing the urine of a client for glucose. Which of the following, if committed by a nurse, indicates an error?

• A. Specimen is collected after meals
• B. The nurse puts the clingiest tablet into a test tube
• C. She added 5 drops of urine and 10 drops of water
• D. If the color becomes orange or red, It is considered

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When conducting a Clinitest for testing urinary glucose levels, it is essential to add the correct amounts of urine and Clinitest reagent as instructed. Adding more water than urine could dilute the sample, leading to inaccurate test results. It's important to follow the correct ratio of drops specified in the instructions for an accurate reading.

5. Which medication should a patient with a history of peptic ulcer disease avoid?

• A. Acetaminophen
• B. Antacids
• C. Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs
• D. Antihistamines

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Patients with a history of peptic ulcer disease should avoid Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) because they can worsen peptic ulcers due to their effects on the stomach lining. Acetaminophen (Choice A) is a safer alternative for pain relief in such patients as it does not have the same ulcerogenic effects. Antacids (Choice B) can actually help alleviate symptoms by neutralizing stomach acid and are generally safe to use. Antihistamines (Choice D) are not known to exacerbate peptic ulcers and can be used safely for conditions like allergies.

Similar Questions