ATI RN
RN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment A
1. Which action by the nurse will help reduce the risk of venous thromboembolism (VTE) in a postoperative patient?
- A. Encourage early ambulation and leg exercises.
- B. Apply compression stockings to the patient's legs.
- C. Administer anticoagulants as prescribed.
- D. Elevate the patient's legs to promote circulation.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to encourage early ambulation and leg exercises. By promoting early ambulation and leg exercises, blood flow is enhanced, reducing the risk of venous thromboembolism (VTE) in postoperative patients. Choice B, applying compression stockings, helps prevent VTE but is not as effective as early ambulation and exercises. Choice C, administering anticoagulants, is important in VTE prevention but does not directly address improving circulation through physical activity. Choice D, elevating the patient's legs, may be beneficial for circulation in specific cases but is not as effective in preventing VTE as early ambulation and leg exercises.
2. A nurse is preparing to administer medications to four clients. The nurse should administer medications to which client first?
- A. A client who has pneumonia and a WBC count of 11,500/mm3 prescribed piperacillin
- B. A client who has renal failure and a serum potassium of 5.8 mEq/L prescribed sodium polystyrene sulfonate
- C. A client who is post-coronary artery bypass graft (CABG) prescribed atorvastatin
- D. A client who has anemia and a hemoglobin level of 11g/dL prescribed epoetin alfa
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. The client with renal failure and high potassium levels requires immediate attention because hyperkalemia can lead to life-threatening cardiac complications. Administering sodium polystyrene sulfonate helps lower the potassium levels. Choice A, the client with pneumonia and a high WBC count, although important, does not present an immediate life-threatening condition. Choice C, the post-CABG client prescribed atorvastatin, and Choice D, the client with anemia and a hemoglobin level of 11g/dL prescribed epoetin alfa, do not require immediate intervention compared to managing hyperkalemia in a client with renal failure.
3. When is removal of the restraints by the nurse appropriate?
- A. When medication that has been administered has taken effect
- B. When no acts of aggression are observed in the hour following the release of two extremity restraints
- C. When the nurse explores with the client the reasons for the angry and aggressive behavior
- D. When the client apologizes and tells the nurse that it will never happen again
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. The nurse can safely remove restraints once no aggressive behavior is observed after releasing two extremity restraints for an hour. Choice A is incorrect because the removal of restraints should be based on the client's behavior rather than just the effect of medication. Choice C is incorrect as exploring reasons for aggressive behavior should be done before or during the intervention, not as a condition for removing restraints. Choice D is incorrect since an apology from the client does not guarantee a change in behavior or indicate that it is safe to remove the restraints.
4. A nurse is preparing an in-service about family violence for a group of newly licensed nurses. Which of the following statements should the nurse include in the teaching?
- A. Perpetrators of family-directed violence do not recognize their behavior as abnormal.
- B. Female clients who experience partner violence are at greater risk for chronic diseases.
- C. The victim's risk for homicide is greatest when they decide to leave the relationship.
- D. The level of violence increases over time in abusive relationships.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because the risk of homicide increases significantly when a victim decides to leave an abusive relationship. This is a crucial point to emphasize in educating healthcare professionals about family violence. Choice A is incorrect because perpetrators often do not acknowledge their behavior as abnormal. Choice B is incorrect as victims of partner violence are at greater risk for chronic, not acute, diseases. Choice D is incorrect as the level of violence tends to escalate rather than decrease over time in abusive relationships.
5. A patient with a history of hypertension is admitted for chest pain. What is the most appropriate action for the nurse to take first?
- A. Obtain a detailed medical history
- B. Administer nitroglycerin
- C. Conduct an ECG
- D. Administer morphine sulfate
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is to administer nitroglycerin. Nitroglycerin is the priority intervention for a patient presenting with chest pain as it helps dilate blood vessels, reduce chest pain, and improve oxygen supply to the heart. Obtaining a detailed medical history, conducting an ECG, or administering morphine sulfate are important steps in the assessment and treatment process but are secondary to the immediate need to address chest pain and potential cardiac ischemia.
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