when is prevident indicated
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

Nutrition ATI Proctored Exam

1. When is Prevident indicated?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Prevident is indicated for all the situations listed in the choices. It is recommended for patients with a high risk of caries to reduce the risk of tooth decay. It is also used in dental procedures like crown and bridge work to strengthen enamel and prevent cavities. Furthermore, it is utilized for orthodontic decalcification to aid in remineralizing the tooth structure and prevent further damage. Therefore, the correct answer is 'All of the above.' While choices A, B, and C are individually correct, selecting 'All of the above' is the most appropriate as it encompasses all the possible indications for Prevident.

2. Which nutrient deficiency produces microcytic anemia, fatigue, faulty digestion, blue sclerae, pale conjunctivae, and tachycardia?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A deficiency in iron can lead to various symptoms, such as microcytic anemia, fatigue, faulty digestion, blue sclerae, pale conjunctivae, and tachycardia. Iron-deficiency anemia may be caused by inadequate dietary intake; accelerated demand or losses; and inadequate absorption secondary to diarrhea, decreased acid secretions, or antacid therapy. Iron deficiency is frequently the result of postnatal feeding practices and has a serious impact on growth and mental and psychomotor development in infants and children. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as zinc deficiency typically presents with symptoms like impaired wound healing, taste abnormalities, and hair loss; sodium deficiency can lead to symptoms such as muscle cramps, dizziness, and confusion; and potassium deficiency may cause muscle weakness, fatigue, and abnormal heart rhythms.

3. What symptoms would most likely be associated with a transient ischemic attack?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: confusion and difficulty speaking. These symptoms are commonly associated with a transient ischemic attack (TIA), which is a temporary blockage of blood flow to the brain. Choice B, headache and blurred vision, are more indicative of other conditions such as migraines or eye problems. Choice C, chest pain and pressure, are more characteristic of cardiac issues like a heart attack. Choice D, claudication and peripheral edema, are typical of peripheral arterial disease and not typically seen in TIAs.

4. After cleaning the abrasions and applying antiseptic, the nurse applies a cold compress to the swollen ankle as ordered by the physician. This statement shows that the nurse has a correct understanding of the use of a cold compress:

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct understanding of using a cold compress includes knowing that it helps prevent edema and reduces pain. Cold application constricts blood vessels, reducing blood flow to the area, which helps decrease swelling and pain. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because cold compresses do not directly affect blood viscosity, safety compared to hot compresses, or eliminate toxic waste products due to vasodilation. It is essential for nurses to have a clear understanding of the rationale behind interventions to provide effective patient care.

5. The PEM in which children ages 18-24 months display edema of the extremities, torso, and face, fatty liver, sparse yellow hair, and receive adequate kilocalories but not enough high-quality proteins is called?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Kwashiorkor is a form of severe malnutrition characterized by edema, fatty liver, and other symptoms, typically resulting from inadequate protein intake despite adequate calorie intake.

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