ATI RN
Nutrition ATI Proctored Exam
1. When is Prevident indicated?
- A. High caries risk
- B. Crown and bridge work
- C. Orthodontic decalcification
- D. All of the above
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Prevident is indicated for all the situations listed in the choices. It is recommended for patients with a high risk of caries to reduce the risk of tooth decay. It is also used in dental procedures like crown and bridge work to strengthen enamel and prevent cavities. Furthermore, it is utilized for orthodontic decalcification to aid in remineralizing the tooth structure and prevent further damage. Therefore, the correct answer is 'All of the above.' While choices A, B, and C are individually correct, selecting 'All of the above' is the most appropriate as it encompasses all the possible indications for Prevident.
2. Electrolytes create _____, which is caused by water following electrolytes within or between cells.
- A. energy
- B. active transport
- C. passive diffusion
- D. osmotic pressure
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Osmotic pressure is the force that drives water movement across cell membranes due to the presence of electrolytes, helping to balance fluid levels in the body. Choice A, 'energy,' is incorrect as electrolytes do not directly create energy. Choice B, 'active transport,' refers to the movement of molecules across a cell membrane requiring energy, not the movement of water. Choice C, 'passive diffusion,' is the process by which substances move from an area of higher concentration to lower concentration, not related to the movement of water following electrolytes.
3. The purpose of ECT in clients with depression is to:
- A. Stimulation in the brain to increase brain conduction and counteract depression
- B. Mainly Biologic, increasing the norepinephrine and serotonin level
- C. Creates a temporary brain damage that will increase blood flow to the brain
- D. Involves the conduction of electrical current to the brain to charge the neurons and combat depression
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Patient safety and efficacy of care depend on actions rooted in established nursing protocols that consider both the immediate and long-term needs of the patient.
4. What is the procedure called when direct observations are used to generate an estimate of a client's current food intake?
- A. Food diary
- B. 24-hour recall
- C. Kilocalorie count
- D. Nutrient surveillance record
Correct answer: C
Rationale: A kilocalorie count is the correct answer as it involves directly observing a client's food intake, which is often used in hospitals to accurately assess nutritional intake and ensure it meets dietary requirements. A food diary (Choice A) is typically self-reported by the client and not directly observed. A 24-hour recall (Choice B) is also usually self-reported and relies on a client's memory of the past 24 hours, which can be unreliable. A nutrient surveillance record (Choice D) is a broader term for tracking nutrient intake in a population and is not specific to the direct observation of an individual's food intake.
5. Increasing the variety of foods often prevents nutrient excesses and toxicities. A dietary change to eliminate or increase intake of one specific food or nutrient usually alters the intake of other nutrients.
- A. Both statements are true.
- B. Both statements are false.
- C. The first statement is true; the second is false.
- D. The first statement is false; the second is true.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The first statement is false because increasing the variety of foods actually helps prevent nutrient excesses and toxicities. The second statement is true because making a dietary change to eliminate or increase the intake of a specific food or nutrient often leads to alterations in the intake of other nutrients. Choice A is incorrect because the first statement is false. Choice B is incorrect because the second statement is true. Choice C is incorrect because the first statement is false, even though the second statement is true.
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