Nursing Elites

1. When is Prevident indicated?

• A. High caries risk
• B. Crown and bridge work
• C. Orthodontic decalcification
• D. All of the above

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Prevident is indicated for all the situations listed in the choices. It is recommended for patients with a high risk of caries to reduce the risk of tooth decay. It is also used in dental procedures like crown and bridge work to strengthen enamel and prevent cavities. Furthermore, it is utilized for orthodontic decalcification to aid in remineralizing the tooth structure and prevent further damage. Therefore, the correct answer is 'All of the above.' While choices A, B, and C are individually correct, selecting 'All of the above' is the most appropriate as it encompasses all the possible indications for Prevident.

2. Without enough calcium, both males and females are at risk of osteoporosis.

• A. TRUE
• B. FALSE
• C.
• D.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The statement is true. Both males and females are at risk of developing osteoporosis if they do not consume enough calcium. Calcium is essential for maintaining strong bones, and inadequate intake can lead to bone density loss and increase the risk of osteoporosis. Therefore, it is crucial for individuals of all genders to ensure they have an adequate calcium intake to support bone health. Choice B is incorrect because osteoporosis is a condition that can affect both males and females.

3. What stimulates bile secretion from the liver to the small intestine?

• A. Pepsin
• B. Salivary Amylase
• C. CCK
• D. Secretin

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Cholecystokinin (CCK) is the hormone that stimulates the release of bile from the gallbladder into the small intestine, aiding in fat digestion. Pepsin is an enzyme in the stomach that breaks down proteins into smaller peptides, not involved in bile secretion. Salivary Amylase is an enzyme in saliva that initiates starch digestion in the mouth, not related to bile secretion. Secretin is a hormone that regulates the release of gastric juice in the stomach and triggers the pancreas to neutralize stomach acid in the small intestine, but it does not stimulate bile secretion.

4. What is the term for a barrier that prevents the normal emptying of stomach contents into the duodenum?

• A. Dumping syndrome
• B. Gastritis
• C. Gastric outlet obstruction
• D. Hypochlorhydria

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Gastric outlet obstruction refers to a condition where the opening between the stomach and the duodenum is blocked, preventing the normal passage of food. This is why choice 'C' is correct. 'A: Dumping syndrome' is incorrect because it is a condition where stomach contents move too quickly through the small intestine, not a barrier preventing emptying. 'B: Gastritis' is inflammation of the stomach lining, not a blockage of the outlet. 'D: Hypochlorhydria' refers to low stomach acid, which may affect digestion but does not create a physical barrier blocking the outlet of the stomach.

5. A client receiving continuous enteral tube feeding reports cramping and abdominal distention. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Check for gastric residual.
• B. Apply low intermittent suction.
• C. Increase the rate of the feeding.
• D. Request a higher-fat formula.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a client on continuous enteral tube feeding experiences cramping and abdominal distention, the nurse should check for gastric residual. This assessment helps determine if the client is tolerating the feeding well or if there is a potential issue such as feeding intolerance. Applying low intermittent suction, increasing the feeding rate, or requesting a higher-fat formula are not appropriate actions for addressing the reported symptoms and may exacerbate the client's discomfort or lead to further complications.

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