Nursing Elites

1. When injecting subcutaneous injection in an obese patient, It should be angled at around:

• A. 45 °
• B. 90 °
• C. 180 °
• D. Parallel to the skin

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Nursing interventions should be grounded in a deep understanding of the physiological processes involved, ensuring that care provided is both effective and efficient.

2. A nurse is caring for a client following a CVA and observes the client experiencing severe dysphagia. The nurse notifies the provider. Which of the following nutritional therapies will likely be prescribed?

• A. NPO until dysphagia subsides
• B. Supplements via nasogastric tube
• C. Initiation of total parenteral nutrition
• D. Soft residue diet

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In the scenario of severe dysphagia following a CVA, the client may have difficulty swallowing and require alternative nutritional support. Providing supplements via a nasogastric tube allows for the delivery of essential nutrients directly into the stomach, bypassing the swallowing difficulties. NPO (nothing by mouth) until dysphagia subsides may be too restrictive for the client's nutritional needs. Initiation of total parenteral nutrition is usually reserved for cases where enteral feeding is not possible or contraindicated. A soft residue diet may not be suitable for a client experiencing severe dysphagia.

3. Why does Anita stand in front of the mirror while performing a Breast Self-Examination (BSE)?

• A. To check for unusual discharges from the breast
• B. To check for any obvious malignancy
• C. To observe the size and contour of the breast
• D. To check for thickness and lumps in the breast

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When performing a Breast Self-Examination (BSE), one of the reasons for standing in front of a mirror is to observe the size and contour of the breast (Choice C). This helps in identifying any visible changes or abnormalities such as dimpling, puckering, or changes in the size and shape of the breasts. While unusual discharges (Choice A) and thickness or lumps (Choice D) can be part of the changes a person might notice during a BSE, these are typically identified by palpation or by squeezing the nipple for discharge, not by just looking in the mirror. Choice B, checking for obvious malignancy, is too vague and not specific enough as malignancy is often not visible to the naked eye.

4. Which condition is an example of a potential cause of gastritis?

• A. bile reflux
• B. low salt intake
• C. hypophosphatasia
• D. gallstones

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Bile reflux is a potential cause of gastritis as it can irritate the stomach lining when bile backs up into the stomach. Choices B, C, and D do not directly cause gastritis. Low salt intake is not a common cause of gastritis. Hypophosphatasia is a rare genetic disorder affecting bone development, not the stomach. Gallstones, while related to the gallbladder, are not a direct cause of gastritis.

5. Is the loss of teeth or supporting periodontium often associated with poor food selection and limited chewing ability, and do the patients' masticatory efficiency and biting force decline with each tooth lost?

• A. Both statements are true
• B. Both statements are false
• C. The first statement is true; the second is false
• D. The first statement is false; the second is true

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Both statements are indeed true. The loss of teeth or supporting periodontium frequently leads to poor food selection and limited chewing ability, as these conditions can make certain foods difficult to consume. Additionally, a patient's masticatory efficiency and biting force do decline with each tooth lost, as there are fewer teeth to distribute the force of the bite. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they suggest that one or both of these statements are false, which is not the case.

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