Nursing Elites

1. When conducting assessments for malnutrition, which risk factors should the nurse consider? (SATA)

• A. Dental problems
• B. Depression
• C. Ability to read and write
• D. All of the above

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When assessing for malnutrition, nurses should consider multiple risk factors. Dental problems and depression can impact a person's ability to eat and maintain proper nutrition. The ability to read and write may not directly relate to malnutrition risk. The correct answer is 'All of the above' because dental problems and depression are indeed risk factors, along with other factors like the inability to prepare meals and the loss of a spouse.

2. What dietary factor raises triglyceride levels?

• A. high refined carbohydrate intake
• B. low soluble fiber intake
• C. high iron intake
• D. low fat intake

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: high refined carbohydrate intake. High intake of refined carbohydrates, such as sugars and white flour, can lead to elevated triglyceride levels, increasing the risk of cardiovascular disease. Choice B, low soluble fiber intake, is incorrect because soluble fiber actually helps lower triglyceride levels. Choice C, high iron intake, is incorrect as iron intake is not directly linked to raising triglyceride levels. Choice D, low fat intake, is also incorrect as not all fats raise triglyceride levels; it depends on the type of fat consumed.

3. Which of the following treatments is not recommended for a child classified with no dehydration?

• A. Administering 1,000 ml to 1,400 ml within 4 hours
• B. Continuing feeding
• C. Allowing the child to take as much fluid as he wants
• D. Returning the child to the doctor if the condition worsens

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Continuing feeding is a recommended treatment for a child classified with no dehydration. This helps maintain the child's nutritional status and supports recovery. Options A, C, and D are appropriate interventions for a child with no dehydration. Option A ensures adequate fluid intake, option C promotes hydration, and option D ensures appropriate follow-up if the condition worsens.

4. Which medical condition is characterized by symptoms such as oral candidiasis, hairy leukoplakia, herpetic ulcerations, Kaposi's sarcoma, xerostomia, and severe periodontal disease?

• A. Acquired Immunodeficiency Syndrome (AIDS)
• B. Acute Leukemia
• C. Anorexia Nervosa
• D. Bulimia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Acquired Immunodeficiency Syndrome (AIDS) is known for a variety of oral manifestations such as oral candidiasis, hairy leukoplakia, herpetic ulcerations, Kaposi's sarcoma, xerostomia, and severe periodontal disease. These symptoms are not typically associated with acute leukemia, anorexia nervosa, or bulimia. Acute leukemia usually presents with symptoms like fatigue, frequent infections, and easy bruising. Anorexia nervosa and bulimia are eating disorders, thus their primary symptoms are primarily associated with eating habits and body weight, not oral health.

5. Which of the following statements are true about iron?

• A. The iron needs of vegans are 20% higher, and the needs of endurance athletes are 10% lower.
• B. It is one of the most common nutrient deficiencies in the world.
• C. Its absorption is increased by Vitamin C and during pregnancy.
• D. Its absorption is increased by tannic acid and calcium in milk.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Choice C is correct because iron absorption is indeed increased by Vitamin C and during pregnancy. The other choices are incorrect. Choice A is wrong as there are no universally accepted percentages for the iron needs of vegans and endurance athletes. Choice B is inaccurate as iron deficiency is actually one of the most common nutritional deficiencies worldwide. Choice D is incorrect because tannic acid and calcium in milk actually inhibit iron absorption rather than increasing it.

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