Nursing Elites

1. Which food is most likely to be included in a low-fiber diet?

• A. Broccoli
• B. Ripe Bananas
• C. Onions
• D. Whole-Grain Bread

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A low-fiber diet is generally recommended for individuals who need to restrict their intake of dietary fiber for health reasons. Ripe bananas are low in fiber and easy to digest, making them an ideal choice for a low-fiber diet. On the other hand, broccoli, onions, and whole-grain bread are high in fiber. Therefore, they are less suitable for a low-fiber diet as they could cause digestive discomfort or exacerbate certain health conditions. Ripe bananas, being low in fiber, are the most appropriate choice for a low-fiber diet.

2. What action should the nurse take first for a client with Listeria food poisoning?

• A. Educate the client on safe food practices.
• B. Start a traceback to identify the source of the outbreak.
• C. Report the case to the county board of health.
• D. Ask the client if they have consumed any unpasteurized products.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Identifying the source of Listeria is crucial for preventing further cases.

3. Considering the statement that communication is most effective when barriers are first removed, which of the following is recognized as an inhibiting factor in communication?

• A. Avoidance of universally accepted abbreviations
• B. Usage of incorrect grammar
• C. Poor handwriting
• D. Advanced age of the client

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is 'D: Advanced age of the client.' Age can be a significant obstacle in communication due to factors such as hearing loss, cognitive decline, or memory issues, which all can hamper effective communication. Choices A, B, and C, while they may present challenges in communication, are not directly related to age and its influence on communication, making them incorrect. The issues presented by not using universally accepted abbreviations, incorrect grammar, and poor handwriting can be resolved through clarification, education, or the use of alternative communication methods, unlike the difficulties that can arise from advanced age.

4. What activities best describe the work of the placenta during pregnancy?

• A. surrounding and cushioning the fetus
• B. combining maternal and fetal blood stores to exchange nutrients
• C. producing hormones that maintain the pregnancy
• D. absorbing vitamins and minerals that can be transferred to the fetus

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The placenta plays a crucial role in producing hormones that are necessary for maintaining pregnancy, supporting fetal development, and preparing the mother's body for childbirth. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because the placenta's primary function is not to surround and cushion the fetus, combine blood stores for nutrient exchange, or absorb vitamins and minerals. While the placenta does facilitate the exchange of nutrients and oxygen between the mother and fetus, its hormone production is the most critical function during pregnancy.

5. A nurse is caring for a client following a CVA and observes the client experiencing severe dysphagia. The nurse notifies the provider. Which of the following nutritional therapies will likely be prescribed?

• A. NPO until dysphagia subsides
• B. Supplements via nasogastric tube
• C. Initiation of total parenteral nutrition
• D. Soft residue diet

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In the scenario of severe dysphagia following a CVA, the client may have difficulty swallowing and require alternative nutritional support. Providing supplements via a nasogastric tube allows for the delivery of essential nutrients directly into the stomach, bypassing the swallowing difficulties. NPO (nothing by mouth) until dysphagia subsides may be too restrictive for the client's nutritional needs. Initiation of total parenteral nutrition is usually reserved for cases where enteral feeding is not possible or contraindicated. A soft residue diet may not be suitable for a client experiencing severe dysphagia.

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