what should the nurse do if a patient experiences abdominal cramping during enema administration

ATI RN

ATI Capstone Adult Medical Surgical Assessment 2

1. What should the nurse do if a patient experiences abdominal cramping during enema administration?

A. Lower the height of the solution container
B. Increase the flow of the enema solution
C. Stop the procedure and remove the tubing
D. Continue the enema at a slower rate

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a patient experiences abdominal cramping during enema administration, the nurse should lower the height of the solution container. This adjustment can help alleviate the cramping by reducing the speed and pressure of the solution entering the colon. Increasing the flow of the enema solution (Choice B) can exacerbate the cramping. Stopping the procedure and removing the tubing (Choice C) may be necessary in extreme cases but is not the initial step. Continuing the enema at a slower rate (Choice D) may not effectively address the cramping, making it less optimal than lowering the height of the solution container.

2. What dietary modifications are recommended for a patient with pre-dialysis kidney disease?

A. Limit phosphorus intake to 700 mg/day
B. Increase sodium intake to 3 g/day
C. Restrict protein intake to 0.55-0.60 g/kg/day
D. Eat three large meals per day

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Limit phosphorus intake to 700 mg/day. Patients with pre-dialysis kidney disease should limit phosphorus intake to prevent further kidney damage. Excessive phosphorus can lead to mineral and bone disorders. Choice B is incorrect because increasing sodium intake is not recommended in pre-dialysis kidney disease. Choice C is incorrect as protein restriction is a common recommendation in advanced kidney disease, not pre-dialysis. Choice D is incorrect as eating three large meals per day is not a specific dietary modification for pre-dialysis kidney disease.

3. What ECG changes are seen in hypokalemia?

A. Flattened T waves on the ECG
B. Elevated ST segments on the ECG
C. Widened QRS complex
D. Prominent U waves on the ECG

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Flattened T waves on the ECG. Flattened T waves are an early indicator of hypokalemia on an ECG. Choice B, Elevated ST segments, is not typically seen in hypokalemia but can be a sign of myocardial infarction. Choice C, Widened QRS complex, is more commonly associated with hyperkalemia. Choice D, Prominent U waves, is typically associated with hypokalemia, but flattened T waves are considered a more specific and early sign.

4. When planning care for a patient with diabetes insipidus, what should the nurse include in the plan?

A. Monitor serum albumin levels
B. Avoid alcohol
C. Teach the patient to increase fluids
D. Increase exercise to reduce stress

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Avoid alcohol.' Alcohol consumption can exacerbate dehydration in patients with diabetes insipidus, so it is essential to advise them to avoid alcohol. Monitoring serum albumin levels (choice A) is not directly related to managing diabetes insipidus. Teaching the patient to increase fluids (choice C) is not recommended as it can worsen the condition by further diluting the urine. Increasing exercise to reduce stress (choice D) is not a primary intervention for managing diabetes insipidus.

5. What symptoms are associated with a thrombotic stroke?

A. Gradual loss of function on one side of the body
B. Sudden loss of consciousness
C. Loss of motor function with nausea
D. Severe headache and vomiting

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A thrombotic stroke presents with a gradual loss of function on one side of the body due to a clot blocking blood flow to the brain. This gradual onset distinguishes it from a hemorrhagic stroke with sudden symptoms like loss of consciousness (Choice B), and from other conditions like migraine, which may present with severe headache and vomiting (Choice D). Nausea (Choice C) is not typically a primary symptom associated with a thrombotic stroke.