Nursing Elites

1. What is the narrowing of the preputial opening of the foreskin called?

• A. Chordee
• B. Phimosis
• C. Epispadias
• D. Hypospadias

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Phimosis is the condition where the foreskin cannot be fully retracted over the glans penis due to a narrowing of the preputial opening. Chordee, epispadias, and hypospadias are different conditions involving the penis's structure.

2. What is the typical presentation of pyloric stenosis in infants?

• A. Bilious vomiting
• B. Projectile vomiting
• C. Blood in stools
• D. Failure to thrive

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Projectile vomiting. Pyloric stenosis in infants typically presents with projectile vomiting, which is forceful and projective in nature. This occurs due to the obstruction at the pylorus, leading to the stomach being unable to empty properly. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Bilious vomiting is more commonly associated with intestinal obstruction, blood in stools can occur in conditions such as necrotizing enterocolitis or allergic colitis, and failure to thrive is a nonspecific finding that can be seen in various pediatric conditions.

3. When planning care for a child with a urinary tract infection, the nurse should give priority to which treatment measure?

• A. Provide adequate nutrition to prevent dehydration.
• B. Administer ordered antibiotics on schedule.
• C. Prevent enuresis.
• D. Restrict fluid.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Administering antibiotics on schedule is crucial in treating a UTI effectively and preventing complications. Antibiotics help to eliminate the infection-causing bacteria from the urinary tract. While maintaining adequate nutrition and hydration are important aspects of care, the priority in a UTI is to target the infection with antibiotics. Preventing enuresis (bedwetting) is not directly related to the treatment of the infection. Fluid restriction is not recommended in the management of a UTI; in fact, encouraging adequate fluid intake helps flush out bacteria from the urinary tract.

4. A child diagnosed with aplastic anemia is admitted to the hospital. The parents ask the nurse what aplastic anemia is. Which response by the nurse is accurate?

• A. Aplastic anemia causes a proliferation of white blood cells.
• B. Aplastic anemia is characterized by abnormally shaped red blood cells.
• C. Aplastic anemia is caused by the bone marrow producing inadequate cells.
• D. Aplastic anemia is a disorder that occurs after a viral illness.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Aplastic anemia is a condition where the bone marrow fails to produce sufficient red blood cells, white blood cells, and platelets, leading to pancytopenia. This can result in fatigue, infections, and bleeding tendencies. It is not characterized by abnormal red blood cell shapes, but rather by a reduction in the production of blood cells. Therefore, the accurate response is that aplastic anemia is caused by the bone marrow producing inadequate cells. Choices A and B are incorrect as aplastic anemia does not cause a proliferation of white blood cells or involve abnormally shaped red blood cells. Choice D is incorrect as aplastic anemia is not typically a disorder that occurs after a viral illness.

5. Which inpatient pediatric patient would not be able to go to the playroom due to their physical condition?

• A. A 4-year-old with chickenpox
• B. A 12-year-old with a fractured femur
• C. A 7-year-old with new-onset diabetes mellitus
• D. A 10-year-old postoperative appendectomy

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. A child with chickenpox should not go to the playroom due to being contagious, as the virus can easily spread to other children. Children with fractures (choice B), new-onset diabetes mellitus (choice C), or postoperative appendectomy (choice D) do not pose a risk of spreading an infectious disease, so they can safely go to the playroom.

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