Nursing Elites

1. What is the most likely complication for a client receiving TPN who suddenly develops tremors, dizziness, and diaphoresis?

• A. Fluid volume overload
• B. Sepsis
• C. Hyperglycemia
• D. Hypoglycemia

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, Hypoglycemia. When a client receiving TPN suddenly develops tremors, dizziness, and diaphoresis, it is indicative of hypoglycemia. TPN provides a high concentration of glucose, and if it is abruptly stopped or the infusion rate is reduced, it can lead to hypoglycemia. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they do not directly correlate with the symptoms described in the scenario. Fluid volume overload typically presents with edema and hypertension, sepsis with fever and increased heart rate, and hyperglycemia with polyuria, polydipsia, and blurred vision.

2. The small intestine is comprised of the cecum, colon, and rectum. The large intestine includes the duodenum, jejunum, and ileum.

• A. Both statements are true
• B. Both statements are false
• C. The first statement is true; the second is false
• D. The first statement is false; the second is true

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Both statements are false. The small intestine consists of the duodenum, jejunum, and ileum, while the large intestine includes the cecum, colon, and rectum.

3. Which meal should be removed for a client taking warfarin?

• A. Oriental cabbage salad with chicken
• B. Beef enchilada, rice, and beans
• C. Ham and cheese sandwich
• D. Macaroni salad and grapefruit slices

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct meal to remove for a client taking warfarin is the 'Ham and cheese sandwich.' Ham is high in vitamin K, which can interfere with the effectiveness of warfarin, a medication that works by decreasing the clotting ability of the blood. Vitamin K can counteract the effects of warfarin by promoting blood clotting. Choices A, B, and D do not contain high amounts of vitamin K and are therefore safer options for individuals taking warfarin.

4. Who most often prescribes a patient's diet order?

• A. Registered Nurse
• B. Physician
• C. Registered Dietetic Technician
• D. Occupational Therapist

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A patient's dietary order is most frequently prescribed by a physician. This is because the physician has a comprehensive understanding of the patient's medical condition and can thus determine the most suitable dietary plan. Registered dietitians often collaborate with physicians in this process, but the final prescription is made by the physician. Although registered nurses, dietetic technicians, and occupational therapists play significant roles in patient care, they typically do not prescribe diet orders.

5. What symptoms would most likely be associated with a transient ischemic attack?

• A. confusion and difficulty speaking
• B. headache and blurred vision
• C. chest pain and pressure
• D. claudication and peripheral edema

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: confusion and difficulty speaking. These symptoms are commonly associated with a transient ischemic attack (TIA), which is a temporary blockage of blood flow to the brain. Choice B, headache and blurred vision, are more indicative of other conditions such as migraines or eye problems. Choice C, chest pain and pressure, are more characteristic of cardiac issues like a heart attack. Choice D, claudication and peripheral edema, are typical of peripheral arterial disease and not typically seen in TIAs.

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