Nursing Elites

1. What is the most likely complication for a client receiving TPN who suddenly develops tremors, dizziness, and diaphoresis?

• A. Fluid volume overload
• B. Sepsis
• C. Hyperglycemia
• D. Hypoglycemia

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, Hypoglycemia. When a client receiving TPN suddenly develops tremors, dizziness, and diaphoresis, it is indicative of hypoglycemia. TPN provides a high concentration of glucose, and if it is abruptly stopped or the infusion rate is reduced, it can lead to hypoglycemia. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they do not directly correlate with the symptoms described in the scenario. Fluid volume overload typically presents with edema and hypertension, sepsis with fever and increased heart rate, and hyperglycemia with polyuria, polydipsia, and blurred vision.

2. The use of the Standards of Nursing Practice is important in the hospital. Which of the following statements best describes what it is?

• A. These are statements that describe the maximum or highest level of acceptable performance in nursing practice
• B. It refers to the scope of nursing practice as defined in Republic Act 9173
• C. It is a license issued by the Professional Regulation Commission to protect the public from substandard nursing
• D. The Standards of Care includes the various steps of the nursing process and the standards of professional

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Effective nursing care involves comprehensive assessments that address all aspects of a patient's condition, ensuring that interventions are appropriately targeted and outcomes are optimized.

3. Which statement does not describe a potential role of minerals in the body?

• A. they provide calories and energy to the body
• B. they help maintain fluid balance in the body
• C. they give teeth and bone their strength
• D. they help muscles contract

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Minerals do not provide calories or energy; instead, they play various roles such as building strong bones and teeth, maintaining fluid balance, and supporting muscle contractions.

4. Where does carbohydrate digestion begin?

• A. Mouth
• B. Esophagus
• C. Stomach
• D. Small intestine

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Carbohydrate digestion begins in the mouth. The enzyme amylase, found in saliva, starts the process by breaking down starches into sugars. The esophagus is a passageway for food to reach the stomach and does not participate in digestion. The stomach mainly digests proteins and is not the primary site for carbohydrate breakdown. While the small intestine does play a crucial role in digesting carbohydrates, it is not where the process initiates. Therefore, the correct answer is the mouth.

5. A healthcare professional is preparing an education program for a group of parents of adolescents. Which of the following should be included as indicators of nutritional risk among adolescents? (Select one that does not apply.)

• A. Skipping more than three meals per week
• B. Eating fast food once weekly
• C. Eating without family supervision frequently
• D. Frequently skipping breakfast

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Among the indicators of nutritional risk among adolescents, skipping meals, eating without family supervision, and frequently skipping breakfast are commonly associated with poor nutrition. However, eating fast food once weekly may not necessarily indicate a significant nutritional risk, as occasional consumption of fast food in moderation is not uncommon among adolescents. This choice is the correct answer because it does not strongly correlate with nutritional risk compared to the other options provided.

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