Nursing Elites

1. What is the most appropriate intervention for a patient with a suspected stroke?

• A. Administer IV fluids
• B. Perform a CT scan
• C. Perform a lumbar puncture
• D. Administer anticoagulants

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The most appropriate intervention for a patient with a suspected stroke is to perform a CT scan. A CT scan is crucial for diagnosing a stroke by visualizing any bleeding or blockages in the brain. Administering IV fluids (Choice A) may be necessary based on the patient's condition, but it is not the primary intervention for a suspected stroke. Performing a lumbar puncture (Choice C) is not indicated for stroke evaluation and may not provide relevant information. Administering anticoagulants (Choice D) is a treatment option for certain types of strokes but should be based on the CT scan results and specific guidelines.

2. A nurse is planning care for a client who has a stage 3 pressure injury. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the plan of care?

• A. Cleanse the wound with povidone-iodine solution daily.
• B. Irrigate the wound with hydrogen peroxide.
• C. Reposition the client every 4 hours.
• D. Use a moisture barrier ointment.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to use a moisture barrier ointment. This intervention helps protect the skin and promote healing in clients with stage 3 pressure injuries. Cleansing the wound with povidone-iodine solution daily (Choice A) can be too harsh and may delay healing by damaging the surrounding skin. Irrigating the wound with hydrogen peroxide (Choice B) is not recommended as it can be cytotoxic to healing tissue. While repositioning the client every 4 hours (Choice C) is an essential intervention in preventing pressure injuries, it is not directly related to the care of an existing stage 3 pressure injury.

3. A nurse is reviewing the medication record of a client with chronic kidney disease. Which of the following medications should the nurse question?

• A. Calcium carbonate
• B. Furosemide
• C. Epoetin alfa
• D. Spironolactone

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, Spironolactone. Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic, which may lead to hyperkalemia in clients with chronic kidney disease. Therefore, its use should be questioned in this population. Choice A, Calcium carbonate, is commonly used to manage phosphate levels in chronic kidney disease. Choice B, Furosemide, is a loop diuretic that helps with fluid retention but should be used with caution in kidney disease. Choice C, Epoetin alfa, is a medication used to stimulate red blood cell production in clients with chronic kidney disease and anemia.

4. A healthcare provider is providing dietary teaching to a client who has osteoporosis. Which of the following foods should the healthcare provider recommend as the best source of calcium?

• A. Broccoli
• B. Cheddar cheese
• C. Almonds
• D. Fortified orange juice

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Cheddar cheese is a rich source of calcium and should be recommended to clients with osteoporosis. While broccoli and almonds also contain calcium, cheddar cheese provides a higher amount per serving. Fortified orange juice may contain added calcium, but it is not as concentrated a source as cheddar cheese. Therefore, the best choice for a client with osteoporosis seeking a high calcium food is cheddar cheese.

5. A nurse is assessing a newborn who has a blood glucose level of 30 mg/dl. Which of the following manifestations should the nurse expect?

• A. Loose stools.
• B. Jitteriness.
• C. Hypertonia.
• D. Abdominal distention.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Jitteriness is a common manifestation of hypoglycemia in newborns. Choice A, 'Loose stools,' is not typically associated with hypoglycemia in newborns. Choice C, 'Hypertonia,' is not a common manifestation of hypoglycemia in newborns; instead, hypotonia may be observed. Choice D, 'Abdominal distention,' is not a typical manifestation of hypoglycemia in newborns.

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