Nursing Elites

1. What ECG changes should be monitored in a patient with hypokalemia?

• A. Flattened T waves and prominent U waves
• B. Elevated ST segments and wide QRS complexes
• C. Tall T waves and flattened QRS complexes
• D. Widened QRS complexes and decreased P wave amplitude

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Flattened T waves and prominent U waves. In hypokalemia, there is a decrease in potassium levels, which can lead to ECG changes such as flattened T waves and prominent U waves. These changes are classic findings associated with hypokalemia. Choices B (Elevated ST segments and wide QRS complexes), C (Tall T waves and flattened QRS complexes), and D (Widened QRS complexes and decreased P wave amplitude) are all incorrect. Elevated ST segments and wide QRS complexes are not typically seen in hypokalemia. Tall T waves and flattened QRS complexes, as well as widened QRS complexes and decreased P wave amplitude, do not represent the typical ECG changes seen in hypokalemia.

2. A patient with GERD is receiving dietary teaching from a nurse. What should the nurse recommend?

• A. Avoid mint and pepper
• B. Increase fluid intake before meals
• C. Eat three large meals per day
• D. Avoid drinking water with meals

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct recommendation for a patient with GERD is to avoid foods like mint and pepper, as these can help reduce gastric acid secretion and alleviate symptoms. Mint and pepper are known to relax the lower esophageal sphincter, leading to increased reflux. Increasing fluid intake before meals (choice B) may worsen GERD symptoms by distending the stomach. Eating three large meals per day (choice C) can also aggravate GERD because large meals can lead to increased gastric pressure and reflux. Avoiding drinking water with meals (choice D) is generally recommended for GERD; however, the most crucial advice in this case is to avoid mint and pepper for better symptom management.

3. What are the priority lab values to monitor in a patient with HIV?

• A. CD4 T-cell count below 180 cells/mm3
• B. White blood cell count
• C. Hemoglobin levels
• D. Serum albumin levels

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: CD4 T-cell count below 180 cells/mm3. Monitoring the CD4 T-cell count is crucial in patients with HIV as it indicates the level of immunocompromise. A CD4 count below 180 cells/mm3 is considered severe immunocompromise and requires close monitoring and intervention. Choices B, C, and D are not the priority lab values to monitor in HIV patients. While white blood cell count, hemoglobin levels, and serum albumin levels can provide valuable information about the patient's health status, they are not as specific or indicative of HIV disease progression and management as the CD4 T-cell count.

4. What are the signs and symptoms of Increased Intracranial Pressure (IICP)?

• A. Irritability, confusion, restlessness
• B. Fatigue and SOB
• C. Changes in pupillary response
• D. Elevated blood pressure

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Irritability, confusion, restlessness. These are common signs of Increased Intracranial Pressure (IICP) as they result from the increased pressure on brain tissue. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Fatigue and shortness of breath (SOB) are not typical symptoms of IICP. Changes in pupillary response can be seen in other conditions but are not specific to IICP. Elevated blood pressure is not a common sign of IICP.

5. What should a healthcare professional do if a patient experiences abdominal cramping during enema administration?

• A. Lower the height of the enema solution container
• B. Stop the procedure and remove the tubing
• C. Continue the enema at a slower rate
• D. Increase the flow of the enema solution

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a patient experiences abdominal cramping during enema administration, the healthcare professional should lower the height of the enema solution container. This action helps relieve the cramping by slowing down the flow of the enema solution, making it more comfortable for the patient. Stopping the procedure and removing the tubing (Choice B) may be necessary in some cases, but it should not be the first step when cramping occurs. Continuing the enema at a slower rate (Choice C) may exacerbate the cramping, so it is not the best course of action. Increasing the flow of the enema solution (Choice D) will likely worsen the cramping and should be avoided.

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