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ATI Capstone Medical Surgical Assessment 2 Quizlet
1. What ECG changes should be monitored in a patient with hypokalemia?
- A. Flattened T waves and prominent U waves
- B. Elevated ST segments and wide QRS complexes
- C. Tall T waves and flattened QRS complexes
- D. Widened QRS complexes and decreased P wave amplitude
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Flattened T waves and prominent U waves. In hypokalemia, there is a decrease in potassium levels, which can lead to ECG changes such as flattened T waves and prominent U waves. These changes are classic findings associated with hypokalemia. Choices B (Elevated ST segments and wide QRS complexes), C (Tall T waves and flattened QRS complexes), and D (Widened QRS complexes and decreased P wave amplitude) are all incorrect. Elevated ST segments and wide QRS complexes are not typically seen in hypokalemia. Tall T waves and flattened QRS complexes, as well as widened QRS complexes and decreased P wave amplitude, do not represent the typical ECG changes seen in hypokalemia.
2. What is the preferred treatment for a patient with unstable angina admitted with chest pain?
- A. Administer sublingual nitroglycerin
- B. Establish IV access
- C. Auscultate heart sounds
- D. Obtain cardiac enzymes
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to administer sublingual nitroglycerin. Nitroglycerin helps vasodilate coronary arteries, improving blood flow to the heart, relieving chest pain, and preventing cardiac tissue damage. Establishing IV access (choice B) is important but not the preferred initial treatment for unstable angina with chest pain. Auscultating heart sounds (choice C) and obtaining cardiac enzymes (choice D) are relevant assessments but do not address the immediate symptomatic relief needed for a patient with unstable angina and chest pain.
3. A client is scheduled for an electroencephalogram (EEG) and a nurse is providing teaching. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?
- A. I should not wash my hair prior to the procedure.
- B. I will receive a sedative 1 hour before the procedure.
- C. I should avoid eating prior to the procedure.
- D. I will be exposed to flashes of light during the procedure.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. The nurse should inform the client that flashes of light or pictures are often used during the procedure to assess the brain's response to stimuli. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because washing hair, receiving a sedative, and avoiding eating are not directly related to the EEG procedure.
4. What should be monitored for in a patient with compartment syndrome?
- A. Unrelieved pain, pallor, and pulselessness
- B. Localized redness and swelling
- C. Fever and infection
- D. Muscle weakness and fatigue
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Correct Answer: A. Unrelieved pain, pallor, and pulselessness are classic signs of compartment syndrome that indicate inadequate blood flow to the affected area. These symptoms are crucial to monitor as they signify a medical emergency requiring immediate intervention. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not align with the typical manifestations of compartment syndrome. Localized redness and swelling may be present but are not the primary indicators. Fever and infection are also not specific to compartment syndrome, and muscle weakness and fatigue are not typically prominent symptoms of this condition.
5. What should a healthcare provider monitor for in a patient with HIV and a CD4 T-cell count below 180 cells/mm3?
- A. Monitor for signs of infection
- B. Monitor for anemia
- C. Monitor for dehydration
- D. Monitor for bleeding
Correct answer: A
Rationale: A CD4 T-cell count below 180 cells/mm3 indicates severe immunocompromise in a patient with HIV. Monitoring for signs of infection is crucial because the patient is at high risk of developing opportunistic infections. Anemia (choice B), dehydration (choice C), and bleeding (choice D) are not directly associated with a low CD4 T-cell count in patients with HIV.
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