what ecg changes should be monitored in a patient with hypokalemia

ATI RN

ATI Capstone Medical Surgical Assessment 2 Quizlet

1. What ECG changes should be monitored in a patient with hypokalemia?

A. Flattened T waves and prominent U waves
B. Elevated ST segments and wide QRS complexes
C. Tall T waves and flattened QRS complexes
D. Widened QRS complexes and decreased P wave amplitude

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Flattened T waves and prominent U waves. In hypokalemia, there is a decrease in potassium levels, which can lead to ECG changes such as flattened T waves and prominent U waves. These changes are classic findings associated with hypokalemia. Choices B (Elevated ST segments and wide QRS complexes), C (Tall T waves and flattened QRS complexes), and D (Widened QRS complexes and decreased P wave amplitude) are all incorrect. Elevated ST segments and wide QRS complexes are not typically seen in hypokalemia. Tall T waves and flattened QRS complexes, as well as widened QRS complexes and decreased P wave amplitude, do not represent the typical ECG changes seen in hypokalemia.

2. What lab value should be monitored in a patient with HIV?

A. CD4 T-cell count below 180 cells/mm3
B. Serum albumin levels
C. Hemoglobin levels
D. White blood cell count

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: CD4 T-cell count below 180 cells/mm3. Monitoring the CD4 T-cell count is crucial in patients with HIV as it indicates the level of immunocompromise. A CD4 T-cell count below 180 cells/mm3 signifies severe immunosuppression and an increased risk of opportunistic infections. Serum albumin levels (choice B) are important for nutritional status assessment but not specific to HIV monitoring. Hemoglobin levels (choice C) are important for assessing anemia but do not directly reflect HIV disease progression. White blood cell count (choice D) is a general marker of inflammation and infection, but monitoring CD4 T-cell count is more specific and crucial in managing HIV.

3. A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client following a heart transplant. Which of the following information should the nurse include in the teaching?

A. Immunosuppressant medications need to be taken for up to 1 year
B. Shortness of breath might be an indication of transplant rejection
C. The surgical site will heal in 3 to 4 weeks after surgery
D. Begin 45 minutes of moderate aerobic exercise per day following discharge

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Shortness of breath is an important sign of transplant rejection. Other manifestations of rejection include fatigue, edema, bradycardia, and hypotension. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because: A) Immunosuppressant medications are typically required for life, not just up to 1 year. C) The surgical site healing time can vary and may take longer than 3 to 4 weeks. D) Starting a specific exercise regimen should be individualized and guided by healthcare providers; a general recommendation like 45 minutes of exercise per day may not be suitable for all heart transplant recipients.

4. A nurse is assessing a client who has a permanent spinal cord injury and is scheduled for discharge. Which of the following client statements indicates that the client is coping effectively?

A. I would like to play wheelchair basketball. When I get stronger, I think I'll look for a league.
B. I'm glad I'll only be in this wheelchair temporarily. I can't wait to get back to running.
C. I'm so upset that this happened to me. What did I do to deserve this?
D. I feel like I'll never be able to do anything that I want to again. All I am is a burden to my family.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Choice A is the correct answer because it shows that the client has accepted their disability and is looking towards the future with realistic goals. This positive attitude and focus on engaging in activities that are achievable despite the disability indicate effective coping mechanisms. Choice B is incorrect as it reflects denial of the permanent nature of the disability. Choice C is incorrect as it shows feelings of anger and possible self-blame, which are not indicative of effective coping. Choice D is incorrect as it demonstrates a sense of hopelessness and self-perceived burden, which are signs of maladaptive coping.

5. What are the expected findings in a patient experiencing hypokalemia?

A. Flattened T waves on an ECG
B. Elevated ST segments
C. Prominent U waves
D. Bradycardia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Flattened T waves on an ECG. Hypokalemia is characterized by flattened T waves on an ECG, which is an early indicator of low potassium levels. Elevated ST segments (Choice B) are associated with conditions like myocardial infarction, not hypokalemia. Prominent U waves (Choice C) are typically seen in hypokalemia, but flattened T waves are more specific. Bradycardia (Choice D) can be a manifestation of severe hypokalemia but is not as specific as flattened T waves on an ECG.