what ecg changes should be monitored in a patient with hypokalemia

ATI RN

ATI Capstone Medical Surgical Assessment 2 Quizlet

1. What ECG changes should be monitored in a patient with hypokalemia?

A. Flattened T waves and prominent U waves
B. Elevated ST segments and wide QRS complexes
C. Tall T waves and flattened QRS complexes
D. Widened QRS complexes and decreased P wave amplitude

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Flattened T waves and prominent U waves. In hypokalemia, there is a decrease in potassium levels, which can lead to ECG changes such as flattened T waves and prominent U waves. These changes are classic findings associated with hypokalemia. Choices B (Elevated ST segments and wide QRS complexes), C (Tall T waves and flattened QRS complexes), and D (Widened QRS complexes and decreased P wave amplitude) are all incorrect. Elevated ST segments and wide QRS complexes are not typically seen in hypokalemia. Tall T waves and flattened QRS complexes, as well as widened QRS complexes and decreased P wave amplitude, do not represent the typical ECG changes seen in hypokalemia.

2. What lab value is a priority in monitoring a patient with HIV?

A. CD4 T-cell count below 180 cells/mm3
B. Hemoglobin levels
C. Serum albumin levels
D. White blood cell count

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: CD4 T-cell count below 180 cells/mm3. Monitoring the CD4 T-cell count is crucial in patients with HIV as it reflects the status of the immune system. A CD4 T-cell count below 180 cells/mm3 indicates severe immunocompromise and an increased risk of opportunistic infections. This value guides the initiation of prophylaxis for infections and the timing of antiretroviral therapy initiation. Choices B, C, and D are not the priority lab values in monitoring patients with HIV. Hemoglobin levels primarily assess for anemia, serum albumin levels reflect nutritional status, and white blood cell count is more generalized and may not specifically indicate the severity of immunocompromise in HIV patients.

3. What is the preferred treatment for a patient with unstable angina admitted with chest pain?

A. Administer sublingual nitroglycerin
B. Establish IV access
C. Auscultate heart sounds
D. Obtain cardiac enzymes

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to administer sublingual nitroglycerin. Nitroglycerin helps vasodilate coronary arteries, improving blood flow to the heart, relieving chest pain, and preventing cardiac tissue damage. Establishing IV access (choice B) is important but not the preferred initial treatment for unstable angina with chest pain. Auscultating heart sounds (choice C) and obtaining cardiac enzymes (choice D) are relevant assessments but do not address the immediate symptomatic relief needed for a patient with unstable angina and chest pain.

4. What intervention is needed for continuous bubbling in the chest tube water seal chamber?

A. Tighten the connections of the chest tube system
B. Clamp the chest tube
C. Replace the chest tube system
D. Continue monitoring the chest tube

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct intervention for continuous bubbling in the chest tube water seal chamber is to tighten the connections of the chest tube system. Continuous bubbling indicates an air leak in the system, and tightening the connections can help resolve this issue. Clamping the chest tube (Choice B) is not appropriate and can lead to complications by obstructing the drainage system. Similarly, replacing the entire chest tube system (Choice C) may not be necessary if the issue can be resolved by tightening the connections. Continuing to monitor the chest tube (Choice D) without taking action to address the continuous bubbling may delay necessary interventions to prevent complications.

5. A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client following a heart transplant. Which of the following information should the nurse include in the teaching?

A. Immunosuppressant medications need to be taken for up to 1 year
B. Shortness of breath might be an indication of transplant rejection
C. The surgical site will heal in 3 to 4 weeks after surgery
D. Begin 45 minutes of moderate aerobic exercise per day following discharge

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Shortness of breath is an important sign of transplant rejection. Other manifestations of rejection include fatigue, edema, bradycardia, and hypotension. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because: A) Immunosuppressant medications are typically required for life, not just up to 1 year. C) The surgical site healing time can vary and may take longer than 3 to 4 weeks. D) Starting a specific exercise regimen should be individualized and guided by healthcare providers; a general recommendation like 45 minutes of exercise per day may not be suitable for all heart transplant recipients.