what ecg changes should be monitored in a patient with hypokalemia
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ATI Capstone Medical Surgical Assessment 2 Quizlet

1. What ECG changes should be monitored in a patient with hypokalemia?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Flattened T waves and prominent U waves. In hypokalemia, there is a decrease in potassium levels, which can lead to ECG changes such as flattened T waves and prominent U waves. These changes are classic findings associated with hypokalemia. Choices B (Elevated ST segments and wide QRS complexes), C (Tall T waves and flattened QRS complexes), and D (Widened QRS complexes and decreased P wave amplitude) are all incorrect. Elevated ST segments and wide QRS complexes are not typically seen in hypokalemia. Tall T waves and flattened QRS complexes, as well as widened QRS complexes and decreased P wave amplitude, do not represent the typical ECG changes seen in hypokalemia.

2. What action should a healthcare provider take if a patient reports cramping during enema administration?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a patient reports cramping during enema administration, the best action is to lower the height of the enema solution container. This adjustment helps relieve abdominal cramping by slowing down the flow of the enema, making it more comfortable for the patient. Increasing the flow of the solution (choice B) would exacerbate the cramping. Stopping the procedure and removing the tubing (choice C) may be necessary in some cases but should not be the first response to cramping. Continuing the enema at a slower rate (choice D) might not be as effective as lowering the height of the solution container in addressing the cramping.

3. What signs indicate increased intracranial pressure (IICP)?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Restlessness, irritability, and confusion are early signs of increased intracranial pressure (IICP). These symptoms occur due to the brain's increased pressure within the skull. Sudden onset of seizures (Choice B) is not typically associated with increased intracranial pressure. Bradycardia and altered pupil response (Choice C) are signs of advanced or worsening IICP. Loss of consciousness (Choice D) is a late sign of increased intracranial pressure.

4. A nurse is caring for a client who has been experiencing repeated tonic-clonic seizures over the course of 30 minutes. After maintaining the client's airway and turning the client on their side, which of the following medications should the nurse administer?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In the scenario described, where the client has been experiencing repeated tonic-clonic seizures over an extended period, the priority is to administer a medication that can rapidly terminate the seizures. Diazepam is the medication of choice for status epilepticus due to its rapid onset of action within 10 minutes when administered intravenously. Lorazepam is also an option, but it is typically administered intravenously as well. Diltiazem is a calcium channel blocker used for conditions like hypertension and angina, not for seizures. Clonazepam, although used for seizures, is not the ideal choice in this acute situation due to its slower onset of action compared to benzodiazepines like diazepam and lorazepam.

5. What does continuous bubbling in the water seal chamber of a chest tube indicate?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Continuous bubbling in the water seal chamber indicates an air leak in the chest tube system. This bubbling occurs when air is escaping through the tube and entering the water seal chamber. Choice B, a blockage in the chest tube, is incorrect as continuous bubbling does not suggest a blockage. Choice C, normal chest tube function, is incorrect because continuous bubbling is not an expected finding in a properly functioning chest tube. Choice D, a malfunction in the drainage system, is incorrect as continuous bubbling specifically points towards an air leak, not a general malfunction.

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