what ecg changes should be monitored in a patient with hypokalemia
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ATI Capstone Medical Surgical Assessment 2 Quizlet

1. What ECG changes should be monitored in a patient with hypokalemia?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Flattened T waves and prominent U waves. In hypokalemia, there is a decrease in potassium levels, which can lead to ECG changes such as flattened T waves and prominent U waves. These changes are classic findings associated with hypokalemia. Choices B (Elevated ST segments and wide QRS complexes), C (Tall T waves and flattened QRS complexes), and D (Widened QRS complexes and decreased P wave amplitude) are all incorrect. Elevated ST segments and wide QRS complexes are not typically seen in hypokalemia. Tall T waves and flattened QRS complexes, as well as widened QRS complexes and decreased P wave amplitude, do not represent the typical ECG changes seen in hypokalemia.

2. What is the purpose of an escharotomy in burn management?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: An escharotomy is performed to relieve pressure in areas affected by deep burns and improve circulation. This procedure involves making incisions through the eschar (burned and dead tissue) to release constricting tissue and allow for the return of blood flow. Choice B is incorrect because the removal of necrotic tissue is typically done through debridement, not escharotomy. Choice C is incorrect because preventing infection in burn injuries is usually achieved through proper wound care and antibiotic therapy, not escharotomy. Choice D is incorrect because removing excess fluid from burn wounds is managed through methods like fluid resuscitation and monitoring, not escharotomy.

3. A nurse is planning care for a patient diagnosed with diabetes insipidus. What should be included in the care plan?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor serum albumin levels. In patients with diabetes insipidus, monitoring serum albumin levels is essential to assess for dehydration and nutritional deficits. Choices B, C, and D are not directly related to managing diabetes insipidus. Restricting protein intake, encouraging fluid intake, and teaching the patient to avoid alcohol are interventions that may be relevant for other medical conditions but are not specific to addressing the needs of a patient with diabetes insipidus.

4. What dietary recommendations are given to a patient with pre-dialysis end-stage kidney disease?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct recommendation for a patient with pre-dialysis end-stage kidney disease is to reduce phosphorus intake to 700 mg/day. Excessive phosphorus intake can be harmful to individuals with kidney disease as their kidneys may not be able to excrete it efficiently. Choice B is incorrect because increasing sodium intake is generally not recommended for patients with kidney disease, as it can contribute to fluid retention and high blood pressure. Choice C is incorrect as protein restriction is commonly advised for individuals with advanced kidney disease to reduce the workload on the kidneys. Choice D is also incorrect as increasing protein intake can further burden the kidneys.

5. What should a healthcare professional do if a patient experiences abdominal cramping during enema administration?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a patient experiences abdominal cramping during enema administration, the healthcare professional should lower the height of the enema solution container. This action helps relieve the cramping by slowing down the flow of the enema solution, making it more comfortable for the patient. Stopping the procedure and removing the tubing (Choice B) may be necessary in some cases, but it should not be the first step when cramping occurs. Continuing the enema at a slower rate (Choice C) may exacerbate the cramping, so it is not the best course of action. Increasing the flow of the enema solution (Choice D) will likely worsen the cramping and should be avoided.

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