what ecg changes should be monitored in a patient with hypokalemia

ATI RN

ATI Capstone Medical Surgical Assessment 2 Quizlet

1. What ECG changes should be monitored in a patient with hypokalemia?

A. Flattened T waves and prominent U waves
B. Elevated ST segments and wide QRS complexes
C. Tall T waves and flattened QRS complexes
D. Widened QRS complexes and decreased P wave amplitude

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Flattened T waves and prominent U waves. In hypokalemia, there is a decrease in potassium levels, which can lead to ECG changes such as flattened T waves and prominent U waves. These changes are classic findings associated with hypokalemia. Choices B (Elevated ST segments and wide QRS complexes), C (Tall T waves and flattened QRS complexes), and D (Widened QRS complexes and decreased P wave amplitude) are all incorrect. Elevated ST segments and wide QRS complexes are not typically seen in hypokalemia. Tall T waves and flattened QRS complexes, as well as widened QRS complexes and decreased P wave amplitude, do not represent the typical ECG changes seen in hypokalemia.

2. What dietary recommendation should be given to a patient with pre-dialysis end-stage kidney disease?

A. Limit phosphorus intake to 700 mg/day
B. Increase sodium intake
C. Restrict protein intake to 0.55-0.60 g/kg/day
D. Eat three large meals per day

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct dietary recommendation for a patient with pre-dialysis end-stage kidney disease is to limit phosphorus intake to 700 mg/day. Excess phosphorus can be harmful to individuals with kidney disease as their kidneys are not able to remove it effectively. Choice B is incorrect as increasing sodium intake is generally not recommended for individuals with kidney disease due to its association with high blood pressure. Choice C is also incorrect as protein restriction is a common recommendation for patients with advanced kidney disease, but the range provided is not accurate. Choice D is incorrect as eating three large meals per day may not be suitable for managing the condition.

3. What should the nurse do when continuous bubbling is seen in the chest tube water seal chamber?

A. Tighten the connections of the chest tube system
B. Clamp the chest tube
C. Replace the chest tube
D. Continue monitoring the chest tube

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When continuous bubbling is observed in the chest tube water seal chamber, the nurse should tighten the connections of the chest tube system. This action can often resolve an air leak causing the continuous bubbling. Clamping the chest tube or replacing it would not address the underlying issue of an air leak and may lead to complications. Continuing to monitor the chest tube without taking corrective action may result in the deterioration of the patient's condition.

4. What is the first intervention for a patient admitted with unstable angina?

A. Administer nitroglycerin
B. Obtain cardiac enzymes
C. Start IV fluids
D. Monitor for chest pain

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct first intervention for a patient admitted with unstable angina is to administer nitroglycerin. Nitroglycerin helps to relieve chest pain by dilating blood vessels and increasing blood flow to the heart, thereby reducing cardiac workload. This intervention aims to alleviate symptoms and prevent further cardiac damage. Obtaining cardiac enzymes (Choice B) is important for diagnosing a myocardial infarction but is not the initial intervention for unstable angina. Starting IV fluids (Choice C) may be indicated in specific cases like hypovolemia but is not the primary intervention for unstable angina. Monitoring for chest pain (Choice D) is essential but taking action to alleviate the pain, like administering nitroglycerin, is the primary focus in the initial management of unstable angina.

5. A nurse is teaching a group of assistive personnel (AP) about caring for clients who have Alzheimer's disease. Which of the following information should the nurse include in the teaching?

A. Explain procedures clearly and concisely to the client before initiating care
B. Encourage a client's engagement in appropriate activities to minimize emotional outbursts
C. Speak calmly and at a moderate volume to a client who is unable to form words or sentences
D. Provide supervision to prevent a client from becoming injured or lost

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because clients with Alzheimer's disease are at risk of wandering and becoming lost. Providing supervision helps prevent them from getting injured or lost. Choice A is incorrect because extensive details may overwhelm clients with Alzheimer's. Choice B is incorrect because limiting activities can lead to boredom and behavioral issues. Choice C is incorrect because speaking calmly and at a moderate volume helps to reduce agitation and confusion in clients with Alzheimer's.