what ecg changes should be monitored in a patient with hypokalemia

ATI RN

ATI Capstone Medical Surgical Assessment 2 Quizlet

1. What ECG changes should be monitored in a patient with hypokalemia?

A. Flattened T waves and prominent U waves
B. Elevated ST segments and wide QRS complexes
C. Tall T waves and flattened QRS complexes
D. Widened QRS complexes and decreased P wave amplitude

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Flattened T waves and prominent U waves. In hypokalemia, there is a decrease in potassium levels, which can lead to ECG changes such as flattened T waves and prominent U waves. These changes are classic findings associated with hypokalemia. Choices B (Elevated ST segments and wide QRS complexes), C (Tall T waves and flattened QRS complexes), and D (Widened QRS complexes and decreased P wave amplitude) are all incorrect. Elevated ST segments and wide QRS complexes are not typically seen in hypokalemia. Tall T waves and flattened QRS complexes, as well as widened QRS complexes and decreased P wave amplitude, do not represent the typical ECG changes seen in hypokalemia.

2. What lab value should be prioritized in a patient with HIV?

A. CD4 T-cell count below 180 cells/mm3
B. Hemoglobin levels
C. Serum albumin levels
D. White blood cell count

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: CD4 T-cell count below 180 cells/mm3. In a patient with HIV, monitoring the CD4 T-cell count is crucial as it reflects the status of the immune system. A CD4 T-cell count below 200 cells/mm3 indicates severe immunocompromise and risk of opportunistic infections. Hemoglobin levels (choice B) are important for assessing anemia but do not directly reflect the immune status in HIV patients. Serum albumin levels (choice C) are indicators of nutritional status and inflammation, not specific to HIV disease progression. White blood cell count (choice D) may fluctuate due to various conditions and is not as specific as the CD4 T-cell count in assessing HIV progression.

3. While administering a blood transfusion, a nurse suspects that the client is having an adverse reaction. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?

A. Maintain IV access
B. Obtain the client's vital signs
C. Contact the provider
D. Stop the transfusion

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct first action for the nurse to take when suspecting an adverse reaction to a blood transfusion is to stop the transfusion immediately. Stopping the transfusion helps prevent further harm to the client. Maintaining IV access and obtaining vital signs are important steps but come after stopping the transfusion in this situation. Contacting the provider can be done after ensuring the client's safety by stopping the transfusion.

4. A patient is receiving discharge instructions for GERD. Which of the following statements by the patient demonstrates an understanding of the teaching?

A. I should take my medication with orange juice.
B. Having a bedtime snack will prevent heartburn.
C. I will lie down after meals.
D. I will limit activities that require bending at the waist.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Patients with GERD should avoid activities that increase intra-abdominal pressure, such as bending at the waist, as this can lead to reflux. Choice A is incorrect because medications for GERD are usually taken with water, not citrus juices. Choice B is incorrect as having a bedtime snack can worsen GERD symptoms. Choice C is incorrect because lying down after meals can also exacerbate reflux due to the effects of gravity.

5. A client has a right-sided pneumothorax, and a chest tube is inserted. Which finding indicates that the chest drainage system is functioning correctly?

A. Gentle bubbling in the suction chamber
B. Crepitus around the insertion site
C. Constant bubbling in the water seal chamber
D. Absence of breath sounds on the right side

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a chest drainage system, gentle bubbling in the suction chamber indicates proper functioning, showing that the system is connected and working effectively to remove air or fluid from the pleural space. Crepitus around the insertion site (Choice B) suggests subcutaneous emphysema, not chest tube functionality. Constant bubbling in the water seal chamber (Choice C) indicates an air leak. Absence of breath sounds on the right side (Choice D) is indicative of the pneumothorax, not the chest tube function.