Nursing Elites

1. What dietary recommendations should be given to a patient with GERD?

• A. Avoid mint and spicy foods
• B. Eat large meals before bed
• C. Increase fluid intake during meals
• D. Drink milk as a snack

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct dietary recommendation for a patient with GERD is to avoid mint and spicy foods. These foods can trigger symptoms of GERD and lead to acid reflux. Choice B is incorrect because eating large meals before bed can exacerbate GERD symptoms by increasing the likelihood of acid reflux during sleep. Choice C is incorrect as increasing fluid intake during meals can worsen GERD symptoms by distending the stomach, leading to increased pressure on the lower esophageal sphincter. Choice D is also incorrect because while milk may provide temporary relief for some individuals, it is not a recommended long-term solution for managing GERD.

2. What ECG changes are expected in a patient with hypokalemia?

• A. Flattened T waves
• B. Prominent U waves
• C. Widened QRS complexes
• D. Tall T waves

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Flattened T waves are an early indicator of hypokalemia on an ECG. Hypokalemia primarily presents with flattened T waves, not prominent U waves, widened QRS complexes, or tall T waves. Prominent U waves are associated with hypokalemia only in severe cases. Widened QRS complexes are more indicative of hyperkalemia, while tall T waves are seen in hyperkalemia as well.

3. What are the signs and symptoms of a hemorrhagic stroke?

• A. Sudden severe headache, decreased level of consciousness, and seizures
• B. Loss of consciousness and weakness
• C. Temporary vision loss
• D. Severe chest pain and shortness of breath

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. A hemorrhagic stroke often presents with a sudden severe headache, decreased level of consciousness, and seizures due to bleeding in the brain. Choice B, loss of consciousness and weakness, is more indicative of an ischemic stroke where a clot blocks blood flow to the brain. Choice C, temporary vision loss, is more commonly seen in conditions like transient ischemic attacks (TIAs) or retinal migraines. Choice D, severe chest pain and shortness of breath, are symptoms more associated with cardiac issues like a heart attack.

4. Which lab value is a priority for a patient with HIV?

• A. CD4 T-cell count 180 cells/mm3
• B. Albumin levels below 3.5 g/dL
• C. Potassium levels below 3.5 mEq/L
• D. White blood cell count below 5000/mm3

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A CD4 T-cell count of less than 180 cells/mm3 is a priority for a patient with HIV because it indicates severe immunocompromise and an increased risk for opportunistic infections. Monitoring CD4 levels helps in assessing the immune status and guiding treatment decisions in patients with HIV. Albumin levels (choice B) are important for assessing nutritional status but are not a direct indicator of immune function in HIV patients. Potassium levels (choice C) and white blood cell count (choice D) are also important, but the CD4 T-cell count is specifically crucial for evaluating the immune function in individuals with HIV.

5. What is an escharotomy and why is it performed?

• A. A surgical incision made to improve circulation in burn injuries
• B. A procedure to remove dead tissue from a wound
• C. A procedure to remove excess fluid from the lungs
• D. A procedure to relieve pain from burns

Correct answer: A

Rationale: An escharotomy is a surgical procedure involving an incision through the eschar (dead tissue) to relieve pressure in burn injuries. It is performed to improve circulation to the affected area, prevent further damage, and restore blood flow. Choice B is incorrect because an escharotomy is not primarily focused on removing dead tissue but rather on relieving pressure. Choice C is incorrect as it describes a procedure related to pulmonary issues, not burn injuries. Choice D is incorrect because while pain relief may be a result of an escharotomy, it is not the primary purpose of the procedure.

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