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ATI Leadership
1. What characteristics will you emphasize in a job interview that will positively influence the meeting?
- A. Patient diagnoses that are of greatest interest.
- B. Avoiding challenging patient assignments to minimize the risk of making a mistake.
- C. Number of times you inserted a nasogastric tube.
- D. Your grades on your scholarly papers in nursing school.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because emphasizing your grades on scholarly papers in nursing school during a job interview can demonstrate your motivation, interest in achieving, and potential for professional growth and success. This evidence of academic success is often seen as a predictor of how well you may perform in a professional setting. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Choice A focuses on patient diagnoses, which may not directly relate to your academic achievements. Choice B suggests avoiding challenging assignments, which does not demonstrate a willingness to learn and grow. Choice C, regarding the number of times you inserted a nasogastric tube, is too specific and does not provide a broad view of your capabilities and potential as a professional.
2. A healthcare professional is administering 1 L of 0.9% sodium chloride to a client who is postoperative and has fluid volume deficit. Which of the following changes should the healthcare professional identify as an indication that the treatment was successful?
- A. Increase in hematocrit
- B. Increase in respiratory rate
- C. Decrease in heart rate
- D. Decrease in capillary refill time
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Decrease in capillary refill time. In a client with fluid volume deficit, improving capillary refill time indicates that the perfusion status is improving due to the increase in fluid volume. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. An increase in hematocrit may indicate hemoconcentration due to fluid loss, an increase in respiratory rate may suggest respiratory distress, and a decrease in heart rate may not be directly related to fluid volume status.
3. A Manager decides that setting goals will assist her in better utilizing her time. Which of the following are true regarding goal setting in the Manager role?
- A. Goals need to be measurable, realistic, and achievable to be effective.
- B. Writing goals will increase the stress level of the Manager.
- C. Goals should be vague, so they are more likely to be met.
- D. Setting goals is a time waster in the Manager role.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Setting goals is beneficial for a Manager as they provide direction and save time. Therefore, goals need to be measurable, realistic, and achievable to be effective. Choice B is incorrect as writing goals does not increase stress but rather helps in time management. Choice C is incorrect because vague goals can lead to confusion and lack of clarity. Choice D is also incorrect as setting goals is a productive activity that aids in time management and achievement.
4. When should a critical pathway be revised?
- A. When variances show a new trend.
- B. When the variances show a new trend.
- C. When a member of the team retires.
- D. When the client leaves the hospital.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: A critical pathway should be revised when variances in the patient's progress indicate a new trend or deviation from the expected course of treatment. This allows healthcare providers to adjust the pathway to ensure optimal patient care and outcomes. Changes in the critical pathway are not typically driven by its length or external factors like team member retirements or client discharges. Therefore, the correct answer is B. Choice A is a better phrasing of the correct answer, emphasizing the importance of variances showing a new trend. Choices C and D are irrelevant to the patient's progress and treatment plan, making them incorrect.
5. A healthcare professional is admitting a client who has rubella. Which of the following types of transmission-based precautions should the nurse initiate?
- A. Airborne
- B. Protective environment
- C. Contact
- D. Droplet
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is 'B: Protective environment.' Rubella requires placing the client in a protective environment due to its airborne precautions. Airborne precautions are typically used for diseases that are spread through tiny droplets that remain in the air for an extended period, like tuberculosis. Contact precautions are used for diseases that are spread by direct or indirect contact, such as MRSA. Droplet precautions are implemented for diseases transmitted through respiratory droplets, like influenza. Therefore, in the case of rubella, airborne precautions in a protective environment are necessary.
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