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1. Which of the following factors contributes to conflicts in professional nursing today?
- A. Some nurses who had planned to retire but find themselves forced to continue working because of the current economic situation
- B. Balancing state practice acts, codes of ethics, and standards of practice
- C. Advances in technology
- D. Multiple generations in the workforce
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The presence of multiple generations in the nursing workforce today with diverse viewpoints and work styles can lead to conflicts. This diversity in perspectives and approaches may result in disagreements on how tasks should be done or how patient care should be managed. Option A refers to economic factors impacting individual nurses rather than conflicts within the profession. Option B is related to compliance and ethical considerations, not conflicts. Option C, advances in technology, may influence nursing practices but is not directly linked to conflicts among professionals.
2. When should the nurse initiate discharge planning for a client experiencing an exacerbation of heart failure?
- A. During the admission process
- B. As soon as the client's condition is stable
- C. After consulting with the client's family
- D. During the initial team conference
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct time for the nurse to initiate discharge planning for a client experiencing an exacerbation of heart failure is as soon as the client's condition is stable. Discharge planning should begin early to ensure a smooth transition and continuity of care. While involving the client's family in the planning process is crucial, the primary focus should be on starting the preparations for discharge once the client's immediate health concerns are addressed and their condition is stable. Waiting for a team conference or after consulting with the family may delay the planning process, which is not ideal in ensuring a timely and effective discharge plan.
3. Which information will the nurse include when teaching a 50-year-old patient who has type 2 diabetes about glyburide (Micronase, DiaBeta, Glynase)?
- A. Glyburide decreases glucagon secretion from the pancreas.
- B. Glyburide stimulates insulin production and release from the pancreas.
- C. Glyburide should be taken even if the morning blood glucose level is low.
- D. Glyburide should not be used for 48 hours after receiving IV contrast media.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Glyburide stimulates insulin production and release from the pancreas. Glyburide belongs to the sulfonylurea class of antidiabetic medications, which work by stimulating the pancreas to produce and release more insulin. This helps to lower blood glucose levels. Choice A is incorrect because glyburide does not decrease glucagon secretion; instead, it acts on insulin. Choice C is incorrect because taking glyburide when blood glucose is low can lead to hypoglycemia. Choice D is incorrect as there is no specific interaction between glyburide and IV contrast media that requires avoiding its use for 48 hours.
4. Which of the following are NOT outcomes of a job analysis? (EXCEPT)
- A. Job specification
- B. Job evaluation
- C. Job description
- D. Job performance
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Job description is actually one of the key outcomes of a job analysis. A job description details the duties, responsibilities, and requirements of a specific job role. Job specification, job evaluation, and job performance are not outcomes of a job analysis. Job specification refers to the specific qualifications and skills required for a job, job evaluation involves determining the relative worth of different jobs within an organization, and job performance relates to how well an employee is executing their job duties.
5. When is the first opportunity for a manager to reduce turnover?
- A. When the decision to hire a new employee is made
- B. After one month of employment
- C. After three months of employment
- D. After a certain tenure period
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The manager's first opportunity to reduce turnover occurs after three months of employment. During this period, the manager can assess the employee's performance, engagement, and fit within the organization. It allows the manager to address any concerns, provide support, and intervene early to prevent turnover. Waiting until after a certain tenure period might be too late to effectively mitigate turnover risk, as issues could have already escalated. Therefore, the three-month mark is a critical point for managers to proactively manage turnover. Choices A and B are incorrect because they do not allow sufficient time for the manager to evaluate the employee and take proactive measures to reduce turnover. Choice D is incorrect as it is too vague and does not provide a specific actionable timeframe for addressing turnover concerns.
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