Nursing Elites

1. What are the expected manifestations of a thrombotic stroke?

• A. Gradual loss of function on one side of the body
• B. Loss of sensation in the affected extremity
• C. Sudden loss of consciousness
• D. Seizures and convulsions

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Gradual loss of function on one side of the body. Thrombotic strokes are caused by a clot forming in a blood vessel supplying the brain, leading to a gradual onset of symptoms due to impaired blood flow to specific brain regions. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because loss of sensation, sudden loss of consciousness, seizures, and convulsions are not typically associated with thrombotic strokes. In a thrombotic stroke, the symptoms develop slowly over time, often over minutes to hours, and include manifestations such as weakness, numbness, or paralysis on one side of the body, along with other symptoms related to the affected brain area.

2. A nurse is caring for a client who has been experiencing repeated tonic-clonic seizures over the course of 30 minutes. After maintaining the client's airway and turning the client on their side, which of the following medications should the nurse administer?

• A. Diazepam IV
• B. Lorazepam PO
• C. Diltiazem IV
• D. Clonazepam PO

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In the scenario described, where the client has been experiencing repeated tonic-clonic seizures over an extended period, the priority is to administer a medication that can rapidly terminate the seizures. Diazepam is the medication of choice for status epilepticus due to its rapid onset of action within 10 minutes when administered intravenously. Lorazepam is also an option, but it is typically administered intravenously as well. Diltiazem is a calcium channel blocker used for conditions like hypertension and angina, not for seizures. Clonazepam, although used for seizures, is not the ideal choice in this acute situation due to its slower onset of action compared to benzodiazepines like diazepam and lorazepam.

3. What is the priority lab value for monitoring a patient with HIV?

• A. CD4 T-cell count below 180 cells/mm3
• B. Serum albumin levels
• C. White blood cell count
• D. Hemoglobin levels

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: CD4 T-cell count below 180 cells/mm3. Monitoring the CD4 T-cell count is crucial in patients with HIV as it serves as a key indicator of immune function. A count below 180 cells/mm3 indicates severe immunocompromise and an increased risk of opportunistic infections. Choice B, serum albumin levels, though important for assessing nutritional status, is not the priority lab value for HIV monitoring. Choice C, white blood cell count, is a nonspecific measure of immune function and may not accurately reflect the status of the immune system in HIV patients. Choice D, hemoglobin levels, are essential for evaluating anemia but are not the primary lab value for monitoring HIV.

4. What are the dietary recommendations for a patient with GERD?

• A. Avoid mint and spicy foods
• B. Eat large meals before bedtime
• C. Consume liquids with meals
• D. Avoid NSAIDs

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to avoid mint and spicy foods for a patient with GERD. These foods can increase gastric acid secretion and worsen symptoms of GERD. Choice B is incorrect because eating large meals before bedtime can exacerbate GERD symptoms due to increased gastric pressure when lying down. Choice C is also incorrect as consuming liquids with meals can lead to increased gastric distention, potentially triggering GERD symptoms. Choice D, avoiding NSAIDs, though important for some patients with GERD due to their potential to irritate the stomach lining, is not a general dietary recommendation for all GERD patients.

5. A home health nurse is providing teaching to the family of a client who has a seizure disorder. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the teaching?

• A. Keep a padded tongue depressor near the bedside
• B. Place a pillow under the client's head during a seizure
• C. Administer diazepam intravenously at the onset of seizures
• D. Position the client on their side during a seizure

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct intervention for a client who has a seizure disorder is to position the client on their side during a seizure. This helps to prevent aspiration and ensures a patent airway. Keeping a padded tongue depressor near the bedside (Choice A) is not recommended as it can cause injury during a seizure. Placing a pillow under the client's head during a seizure (Choice B) is also not advised as it can obstruct the airway. Administering diazepam intravenously at the onset of seizures (Choice C) is not typically done at home without healthcare provider direction.

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