Nursing Elites

1. What are the clinical manifestations of hypovolemic shock, and how should a nurse respond?

• A. Hypertension, bradycardia, and oliguria
• B. Bradycardia, hypertension, and peripheral edema
• C. Tachypnea, cool skin, and confusion
• D. Tachycardia, hypotension, and decreased urine output

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Tachycardia, hypotension, and decreased urine output are classic clinical manifestations of hypovolemic shock. In hypovolemic shock, the body tries to compensate for low blood volume by increasing the heart rate (tachycardia) to maintain cardiac output, leading to hypotension and decreased urine output. Prompt fluid replacement is necessary to restore intravascular volume. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they do not represent the typical manifestations of hypovolemic shock.

2. A nurse is preparing to administer medications to four clients. The nurse should administer medications to which client first?

• A. A client who has pneumonia and a WBC count of 11,500/mm3 prescribed piperacillin
• B. A client who has renal failure and a serum potassium of 5.8 mEq/L prescribed sodium polystyrene sulfonate
• C. A client who is post-coronary artery bypass graft (CABG) prescribed atorvastatin
• D. A client who has anemia and a hemoglobin level of 11g/dL prescribed epoetin alfa

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. The client with renal failure and high potassium levels requires immediate attention because hyperkalemia can lead to life-threatening cardiac complications. Administering sodium polystyrene sulfonate helps lower the potassium levels. Choice A, the client with pneumonia and a high WBC count, although important, does not present an immediate life-threatening condition. Choice C, the post-CABG client prescribed atorvastatin, and Choice D, the client with anemia and a hemoglobin level of 11g/dL prescribed epoetin alfa, do not require immediate intervention compared to managing hyperkalemia in a client with renal failure.

3. A nurse is preparing to measure a client's level of oxygen saturation and observes edema of both hands and thickened toenails. The nurse should apply the pulse oximeter probe to which of the following locations?

• A. Finger
• B. Earlobe
• C. Toe
• D. Skin fold

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a client has edema of both hands and thickened toenails, these conditions can impede accurate readings from the finger and toe locations. The earlobe is the best alternative site for the pulse oximeter probe in this scenario. Placing the probe on the earlobe will help ensure a more accurate measurement of oxygen saturation despite the issues with the hands and toenails. Therefore, the correct answer is to apply the pulse oximeter probe to the earlobe. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because of the potential limitations presented by the edema and thickened toenails.

4. While obtaining the health and medication history of a client with a respiratory infection, the nurse learns that the client developed a rash the last time she took an antibiotic despite not being aware of any allergies. What information should the nurse provide to the client?

• A. Document the exact medication taken
• B. Ignore the symptom
• C. Stop taking antibiotics
• D. Continue with the current medication

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the client to document the exact medication taken. This is crucial for preventing future allergic reactions. By knowing the specific antibiotic that caused the rash, healthcare providers can avoid prescribing it again, reducing the risk of an allergic response. Choice B, 'Ignore the symptom,' is incorrect as ignoring a potential allergic reaction can lead to more severe complications. Choice C, 'Stop taking antibiotics,' is not advisable without proper guidance from a healthcare provider. Choice D, 'Continue with the current medication,' is also not recommended when there is a history of a rash related to antibiotic use.

5. A client with asthma is taking fluticasone. The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following adverse effects?

• A. Polyuria
• B. Oral candidiasis
• C. Hypertension
• D. Hypoglycemia

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Correct. Fluticasone, a corticosteroid medication commonly used to manage asthma, can lead to oral candidiasis due to its immunosuppressive effects. This fungal infection can manifest as white patches in the mouth and throat. Monitoring for signs of oral candidiasis is essential to initiate appropriate treatment. Polyuria (excessive urination) is not a common adverse effect of fluticasone. Hypertension and hypoglycemia are also not typically associated with this medication, making them incorrect choices.

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