Nursing Elites

1. Which surgical procedure involves opening or replacing a narrowed or blocked heart valve?

• A. Valve replacement
• B. Angioplasty
• C. Stent placement
• D. Coronary bypass surgery

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Valve replacement is the correct answer because it specifically involves surgically replacing a damaged or diseased heart valve with a prosthetic valve to address narrowing or blockage, thereby improving blood flow and heart function. Angioplasty (choice B) is a procedure to widen narrowed or obstructed arteries, typically using a balloon catheter. Stent placement (choice C) involves inserting a mesh tube to support a weakened artery. Coronary bypass surgery (choice D) is a procedure to create new routes for blood flow to the heart muscle by bypassing blocked arteries.

2. Which term describes an abnormal heartbeat that can be either too fast or too slow?

• A. Arrhythmia
• B. Bradycardia
• C. Tachycardia
• D. Conductivity

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Arrhythmia. Arrhythmia is a broad term that refers to any irregularity in the heart's rhythm, which can manifest as a heartbeat that is too fast (tachycardia), too slow (bradycardia), or irregular. Choice B, Bradycardia, specifically denotes a slow heart rate, while choice C, Tachycardia, refers to a fast heart rate. Choice D, Conductivity, is not the correct term to describe an abnormal heartbeat characterized by speed irregularities.

3. The client is on enoxaparin (Lovenox) for DVT prophylaxis. What is the most important lab value to monitor?

• A. Platelet count
• B. PT/INR
• C. aPTT
• D. Hemoglobin

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Platelet count. When a client is on enoxaparin (Lovenox), monitoring the platelet count is crucial as enoxaparin can lead to a rare but serious side effect known as heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT), causing a decrease in platelet count. Monitoring the platelet count helps detect this adverse reaction early. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because enoxaparin therapy does not directly affect PT/INR, aPTT, or hemoglobin levels.

4. Which of the following is a chronic condition where the heart muscle is weakened and unable to pump blood effectively, often leading to heart failure?

• A. Dilated cardiomyopathy
• B. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
• C. Restrictive cardiomyopathy
• D. Myocarditis

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Dilated cardiomyopathy is characterized by the heart muscle being weakened and unable to pump blood effectively, ultimately resulting in heart failure. Choice B, Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy, involves the heart muscle becoming abnormally thick, reducing the heart's efficiency. Choice C, Restrictive cardiomyopathy, refers to the heart becoming rigid and less able to fill with blood properly. Myocarditis, as in Choice D, is inflammation of the heart muscle usually caused by a viral infection and is different from the chronic weakening seen in dilated cardiomyopathy.

5. What term describes the phenomenon wherein decreased BP causes a reflex SNS response with increased pulse, increased contractility, and vasoconstriction; and increased BP causes reflex vagal responses resulting in decreased heart rate and passive vasodilation in the systemic arterioles?

• A. Baroreflex
• B. Cheyne-Stokes breathing
• C. Frank-Starling Law
• D. Starling reflex

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Baroreflex. The Baroreflex is a mechanism by which the body maintains blood pressure homeostasis through reflexive adjustments in heart rate and vascular tone. Choice B, Cheyne-Stokes breathing, is a pattern of breathing characterized by progressively deeper and sometimes faster breathing, followed by a gradual decrease that results in a temporary stop in breathing. Choices C and D, Frank-Starling Law and Starling reflex, are related to the intrinsic ability of the heart to adjust its output based on venous return, not specifically regulating blood pressure through reflex adjustments in heart rate and vascular tone as seen in the described phenomenon.

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