this is a surgical procedure that involves removing a portion of the lung
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

Cardiovascular System Exam Questions

1. Which surgical procedure involves removing a portion of the lung?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A lobectomy is the surgical removal of a lobe of the lung. This procedure is commonly performed to treat conditions like lung cancer or severe lung diseases. Pneumonectomy involves removing an entire lung, making it incorrect. Tracheostomy is a surgical procedure to create an opening in the windpipe, not involving lung tissue removal. Bronchoscopy is a diagnostic procedure that allows visualization of the airways using a thin, flexible tube with a camera, not involving lung tissue removal.

2. What is the primary effect of a calcium channel blocker on the heart?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Decreases blood pressure. Calcium channel blockers primarily work by relaxing blood vessels, leading to a decrease in blood pressure. While these medications can have secondary effects on the heart, such as reducing the workload of the heart muscle, the primary effect related to blood pressure regulation. Therefore, choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they do not reflect the primary action of calcium channel blockers on the heart.

3. Which chronic respiratory condition is characterized by the narrowing and inflammation of the airways, leading to difficulty breathing?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Asthma is the correct answer. It is a chronic respiratory condition where the airways become inflamed and narrowed, leading to episodes of wheezing, breathlessness, chest tightness, and coughing. Asthma is characterized by reversible airflow obstruction, differentiating it from COPD, which involves irreversible airflow limitation. Bronchitis is an inflammation of the bronchial tubes without the same reversible airflow obstruction seen in asthma. Pneumonia is an infection of the lung tissue and does not involve chronic inflammation and narrowing of the airways like asthma.

4. When administering an ACE inhibitor to a client with heart failure, what is the expected outcome of this medication?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Increased cardiac output. ACE inhibitors are commonly used in heart failure to reduce the workload on the heart by decreasing blood pressure and increasing cardiac output. This ultimately helps improve the heart's efficiency and function. Choice A is incorrect because ACE inhibitors generally lead to a reduction in blood pressure. Choice B is incorrect as ACE inhibitors do not increase heart rate. Choice D is incorrect as ACE inhibitors do not typically decrease heart rate in the context of heart failure.

5. When administering dobutamine to a client, what is the most important parameter to assess?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When giving dobutamine, the most critical parameter to assess is blood pressure. Dobutamine is known to cause significant changes in blood pressure, making it essential to closely monitor this parameter to prevent adverse effects. While heart rate is also important to monitor, blood pressure takes precedence due to the potential for hemodynamic instability caused by dobutamine. Oxygen saturation and respiratory rate, although vital signs to monitor, are not typically affected directly by dobutamine administration.

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The client is on spironolactone (Aldactone) and has a potassium level of 5.9 mEq/L. What is the nurse’s priority action?
Which condition involves the enlargement and weakening of the left ventricle of the heart, leading to reduced pumping ability?

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