Nursing Elites

1. Which heart chamber ejects blood into the lungs via the pulmonary artery?

• A. Right atrium
• B. Left atrium
• C. Right ventricle
• D. Left ventricle

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C, the right ventricle. The right ventricle is responsible for pumping deoxygenated blood into the lungs through the pulmonary artery for oxygenation. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because the right atrium receives deoxygenated blood from the body, the left atrium receives oxygenated blood from the lungs, and the left ventricle pumps oxygenated blood to the body, respectively.

2. What is a surgical procedure to remove one of the lobes of the lungs, often performed to treat lung cancer?

• A. Lobectomy
• B. Pneumonectomy
• C. Thoracotomy
• D. Tracheostomy

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A lobectomy is the correct answer. This surgical procedure involves removing one of the lobes of the lungs, commonly done to treat lung cancer or other serious lung ailments. Choice B, pneumonectomy, involves the complete removal of a lung, not just a lobe. Choice C, thoracotomy, is a surgical incision into the chest wall and is not specific to removing a lung lobe. Choice D, tracheostomy, is the creation of an opening in the windpipe to assist with breathing and is unrelated to lung lobe removal.

3. The client on warfarin has an INR of 3.8. What is the most appropriate action by the nurse?

• A. Administer vitamin K.
• B. Hold the next dose of warfarin.
• C. Increase the dose of warfarin.
• D. Notify the healthcare provider immediately.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: An INR of 3.8 is elevated, indicating an increased risk of bleeding. Administering vitamin K can help reverse the effects of warfarin. Holding the next dose of warfarin would be appropriate if the INR was too high, but not as the first-line action. Increasing the dose of warfarin would worsen the situation by further increasing the INR. Notifying the healthcare provider is important, but immediate action to address the elevated INR is necessary.

4. The client on spironolactone should avoid which of the following?

• A. Foods high in potassium
• B. Foods high in sodium
• C. Foods high in calcium
• D. Foods high in chloride

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Foods high in potassium. Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic, meaning it helps the body retain potassium and excrete sodium. Consuming foods high in potassium while on spironolactone can lead to an excess of potassium in the body, potentially causing hyperkalemia. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because spironolactone does not directly interact with sodium, calcium, or chloride in a way that would require specific dietary restrictions related to these minerals.

5. Which term refers to the ability of the heart to initiate impulses repetitively and spontaneously?

• A. Contractility
• B. Excitability
• C. Automaticity
• D. Rhythmicity

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Automaticity. Automaticity is the specific term used to describe the heart's ability to generate impulses repetitively and spontaneously. Contractility (A) refers to the ability of muscle fibers to contract, not the initiation of impulses. Excitability (B) is the ability of cells to respond to stimuli but is not specific to the heart's impulse generation. Rhythmicity (D) is a related term but does not specifically describe the heart's spontaneous impulse initiation.

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