ATI RN
Physical Exam Cardiovascular System
1. Which condition is an infection that inflames the air sacs in one or both lungs, which may fill with fluid?
- A. Pneumonia
- B. Bronchitis
- C. Tuberculosis
- D. Cystic fibrosis
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A, Pneumonia. Pneumonia is an infection that inflames the air sacs in the lungs, which may fill with fluid or pus, causing symptoms like cough, fever, and difficulty breathing. Bronchitis (choice B) is an inflammation of the bronchial tubes, not the air sacs in the lungs. Tuberculosis (choice C) is a bacterial infection that primarily affects the lungs but does not always cause fluid accumulation in the air sacs. Cystic fibrosis (choice D) is a genetic disorder that affects the lungs but does not directly cause inflammation of the air sacs with fluid.
2. What is a surgical procedure to create an opening in the windpipe to assist with breathing?
- A. Tracheostomy
- B. Lobectomy
- C. Thoracotomy
- D. Pleurodesis
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Tracheostomy is the correct answer. It is a surgical procedure to create an opening in the windpipe (trachea) to assist with breathing. This procedure is commonly used for patients who require long-term ventilation support. Choice B, Lobectomy, involves the removal of a lobe of the lung and is not related to creating an opening in the windpipe. Choice C, Thoracotomy, is a surgical incision into the chest wall and is not specifically related to creating an opening in the windpipe. Choice D, Pleurodesis, is a procedure to treat recurrent pleural effusions by causing the pleural layers to stick together, and it is not related to creating an opening in the windpipe.
3. Which test measures how well the lungs work by assessing the amount of air the lungs can hold and how quickly air can be exhaled?
- A. Spirometry
- B. Pulse oximetry
- C. Arterial blood gas (ABG)
- D. Chest X-ray
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A, Spirometry. Spirometry is a pulmonary function test that evaluates lung function by measuring the amount of air a person can exhale and how quickly, assisting in the diagnosis of conditions such as asthma and COPD. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because Pulse oximetry measures oxygen saturation in the blood, Arterial blood gas (ABG) evaluates blood pH, oxygen, and carbon dioxide levels, and a Chest X-ray provides an image of the lungs but does not measure lung function.
4. When administering an ACE inhibitor to a client with heart failure, what is the expected outcome of this medication?
- A. Decreased blood pressure
- B. Increased heart rate
- C. Increased cardiac output
- D. Decreased heart rate
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Increased cardiac output. ACE inhibitors are commonly used in heart failure to reduce the workload on the heart by decreasing blood pressure and increasing cardiac output. This ultimately helps improve the heart's efficiency and function. Choice A is incorrect because ACE inhibitors generally lead to a reduction in blood pressure. Choice B is incorrect as ACE inhibitors do not increase heart rate. Choice D is incorrect as ACE inhibitors do not typically decrease heart rate in the context of heart failure.
5. The nurse is caring for a client on warfarin with an INR of 5.2. What is the most appropriate action?
- A. Administer vitamin K as an antidote.
- B. Hold the next dose of warfarin.
- C. Increase the dose of warfarin.
- D. Monitor the client’s INR closely.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: An INR of 5.2 is elevated, indicating an increased risk of bleeding. Administering vitamin K can help reverse the effects of warfarin, which is the most appropriate action in this situation. Holding the next dose of warfarin is not enough to address the high INR, and increasing the dose would further elevate the INR level. Monitoring the INR closely is important, but in this case, immediate action is needed to counteract the anticoagulant effects of warfarin.
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