Nursing Elites

1. What structures hold up the AV valves and are anchored to the ventricular wall by the papillary muscles?

• A. Chordae tendineae
• B. Papillary muscles
• C. Semilunar valves
• D. Aortic valve

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Chordae tendineae. Chordae tendineae are fibrous cords that connect the AV valves to the papillary muscles, preventing the valves from inverting during ventricular contraction. Papillary muscles (choice B) anchor the chordae tendineae to the ventricular wall but do not hold up the AV valves directly. Semilunar valves (choice C) are located between the ventricles and the major arteries and are not involved in holding up the AV valves. The aortic valve (choice D) is one of the semilunar valves and is not responsible for holding up the AV valves.

2. The client is on a nitrate for angina. What is the most common side effect the nurse should monitor for?

• A. Headache
• B. Flushing
• C. Dizziness
• D. Nausea

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A, Headache. Nitrates commonly cause headaches as a side effect due to vasodilation. Flushing, dizziness, and nausea are less common side effects associated with nitrates. Flushing is more related to the dilation of blood vessels closer to the skin's surface, dizziness could occur but is not as common as headaches, and nausea is a less typical side effect of nitrates.

3. What procedure is used to remove fluid from the pleural space to help a patient breathe more easily?

• A. Thoracentesis
• B. Bronchoscopy
• C. Echocardiogram
• D. CT scan

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Thoracentesis is the correct answer. It is a procedure where a needle is inserted into the pleural space to drain fluid, relieving pressure and helping the patient breathe more easily. Bronchoscopy (choice B) is a procedure used to examine the airways, not to drain fluid. An echocardiogram (choice C) is an imaging test to assess the heart's structure and function, not related to draining pleural fluid. A CT scan (choice D) is a cross-sectional imaging test that provides detailed pictures of the inside of the body, not used for draining pleural fluid.

4. This is a more accurate indicator of tissue perfusion. It represents the cardiac output in terms of liters per minute per square meter of body surface area. Its normal range is 2.4-4 L/min.

• A. Cardiac Index
• B. Stroke volume
• C. Ejection fraction
• D. Cardiac output

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Cardiac Index. Cardiac Index is a measure of cardiac output relative to body surface area, providing a more accurate assessment of tissue perfusion. It is calculated by dividing the cardiac output by the body surface area. The normal range for cardiac index is 2.4-4 L/min/m². Choice B, Stroke volume, refers to the amount of blood ejected by the heart in one contraction and is not adjusted for body surface area. Choice C, Ejection fraction, is the percentage of blood pumped out of the heart's ventricles with each contraction, not adjusted for body surface area. Choice D, Cardiac output, is the total volume of blood pumped by the heart per minute, without considering body surface area.

5. What is a procedure to remove fluid or air from the pleural space to help a patient breathe easier?

• A. Thoracentesis
• B. Bronchoscopy
• C. Chest X-ray
• D. CT scan

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Correct! Thoracentesis is the correct answer. It is a procedure where fluid or air is removed from the pleural space in the chest to help the patient breathe more easily. Bronchoscopy (choice B) is a procedure to visualize the airways, while Chest X-ray (choice C) and CT scan (choice D) are imaging tests and do not involve the removal of fluid or air from the pleural space.

Similar Questions