Nursing Elites

1. The nurse is giving the client digoxin for heart failure and recognizes that the drug has what type of effect on the heart?

• A. Negative inotropic, negative chronotropic effect
• B. Positive inotropic, negative chronotropic effect
• C. Negative inotropic, positive chronotropic effect
• D. Positive inotropic, positive chronotropic effect

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Positive inotropic, negative chronotropic effect. Digoxin strengthens the heart muscle, providing a positive inotropic effect, which increases the force of contraction. It also decreases the heart rate, having a negative chronotropic effect. Choice A is incorrect because digoxin has a positive inotropic effect, not a negative inotropic effect. Choice C is incorrect as digoxin does not have a positive chronotropic effect but a negative one. Choice D is incorrect because while digoxin has a positive inotropic effect, it does not have a positive chronotropic effect.

2. The nurse is administering enoxaparin (Lovenox) to a client. What is the most important lab value to monitor?

• A. Platelet count
• B. Hemoglobin
• C. White blood cell count
• D. aPTT

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Platelet count. When administering enoxaparin, it is crucial to monitor the platelet count because enoxaparin can lead to a rare but serious side effect known as thrombocytopenia, which is a decrease in platelet levels. Monitoring the platelet count helps in detecting this adverse effect early. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because hemoglobin, white blood cell count, and aPTT are not the most important lab values to monitor specifically for enoxaparin administration.

3. Which term refers to the contraction phase of the heart when blood is ejected from the chambers?

• A. Systole
• B. Diastole
• C. Contractility
• D. Afterload

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A, systole. Systole is the phase of the cardiac cycle when the heart contracts and pumps blood out of the chambers. During diastole (choice B), the heart relaxes and fills with blood, contrasting with systole. Contractility (choice C) refers to the ability of the heart to contract effectively. Afterload (choice D) is the pressure the heart must work against to eject blood during systole.

4. What is an infection that causes inflammation in the air sacs of one or both lungs, which may fill with fluid or pus?

• A. Pneumonia
• B. Tuberculosis
• C. Pleurisy
• D. Pulmonary edema

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A, Pneumonia. Pneumonia is an infection that inflames the air sacs in one or both lungs, which may fill with fluid or pus, causing symptoms like cough, fever, chills, and difficulty breathing. Tuberculosis (B) is a bacterial infection that primarily affects the lungs but is caused by a different bacterium. Pleurisy (C) is inflammation of the tissues that line the lungs and chest cavity, not the air sacs. Pulmonary edema (D) is a condition where fluid accumulates in the lungs' air sacs but is often due to heart problems rather than an infection.

5. The client on warfarin has an INR of 5.5. What is the priority nursing action?

• A. Administer vitamin K as an antidote.
• B. Hold the next dose of warfarin.
• C. Increase the dose of warfarin.
• D. Administer fresh frozen plasma.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: An INR of 5.5 is significantly elevated, indicating an increased risk of bleeding. The priority nursing action in this situation is to administer vitamin K as an antidote to reverse the effects of warfarin and lower the INR. Holding the next dose of warfarin (choice B) is important but not as immediate as administering vitamin K. Increasing the dose of warfarin (choice C) would further elevate the INR, worsening the bleeding risk. Administering fresh frozen plasma (choice D) is not the first-line treatment for high INR due to warfarin.

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